Gen Med Test 1

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ATRN 7560 - Dr. Stephens

Last updated 9:44 PM on 9/22/26
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42 Terms

1
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What does HEENT stand for?

head, eyes, ears, nose, and throat

2
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T/F: Pain level is considered a vital sign.

false

3
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T/F: Pregnancy is a contraindication for x-rays.

true

4
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What does bradycardia mean?

slow heart rate

5
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What are three questions you would ask when conducting a history for a patient who is ill?

short answer question

6
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What is the difference between a social history and a medical history?

short answer question

7
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What information is typically sought when asking about a family history?

diabetes, heart disease, hypertension, kidney disease, cardiovasular disease, allergies, asthma, mental illness, addictions

8
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Which of the following is a normal blood pressure?

120/80

<p>120/80</p>
9
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During a routine medical examination, which sequence is most consistent with the recommended approach?

vital signs, cephalocaudal system review

10
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An athletic trainer counts 18 radial pulses in 15s. What is the estimated HR?

18×4 = 72 beats/min

11
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Which finding is considered bradycardia in the adult patient discussed in the slides?

<60 beats/min

12
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Which method is considered the gold standard measurement of core temperature when exertional heat illness is suspected?

rectal temperature

13
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During auscultation, which component of the stethoscope is best for hearing high-pitched sounds?

diaphragm

14
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An athlete reports numbness, tingling, and progressive weakness in one upper extremity. Which examination component is particularly indicated?

neurological testing (includes dermatomes. myotomes, and deep tendon reflex)

15
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Which statement best defines a dermatome?

  • an area of skin supplied by one dorsal sensory nerve root

  • a specific area of skin innervated by a dorsal or sensory nerve root


16
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A patient demonstrates an exaggerated deep tendon reflex graded +3. This finding should raise concern for:

Upper motor neuron lesion

<p>Upper motor neuron lesion</p>
17
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Which imaging sudy uses a magnetic field to align protons and is equally useful for soft-tissue and muscoloskeletal conditions?

magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

18
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Which statement regarding computed tomography is most accurate?

It provides cross-sectional images, but exposes the patient to more radiation than standard radiographs.

19
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A clinician suspects a deep vein thrombosis in a pregnant athlete. Which diagnostic study is most appropiate based on the slide content?

diagnostic ultrasound

20
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Which study is designed to identify abnormal metabolic activity at the cellular level, sometimes before changes are apparent on CT or MRI?

PET scan

21
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An electromyography study is primarily used to:

Record electrical activity within a muscle

22
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A cardiac event monitor differs from a standard resting ECG because it:

is worn during activities of daily living for 24 hours to 1 month

23
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During a cardiac stress test, which finding is a clear reason to stop the test?

near syncope

  • all of the following are reasons to stop the testing:

    • patient desire to stop

    • signs of cyanosis or pallor

    • sustained ventricular tachycardia

    • patient dizziness

    • moderate to severe angina

    • hypertensive response


24
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Which laboratory test can provide information about hemoglobin, hematocrit, white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets?

complete blood count

25
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A pulse oximeter reading of 92% should be interpreted as:

Mild hypoxia requiring clinical evaluation

  • normal values are >95%

  • values below 95% identify hypoxia

  • values below 85% are critical


26
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Which imaging study is particularly useful for identifying stress fractures because the tracer accumulates in areas of increased metabolic activity?

bone scan

27
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Pharmacokinetics is the study of:

How the body absorbs, distributes, metabolizes, and eliminates a drug

28
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A drug’s half life is best defined as:

Time needed for blood or tissue drug levels to decrease by one-half

29
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Which route of administration produces a systemic effect through absorption of medication from a skin patch?

transdermal

30
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An athlete uses a prescribed insulin pen. This medication is commonly administered by which route?

subcutaneous

31
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Which statement correctly distinguishes topical from transdermal medication administration?

Topical medications generally act locally, whereas transdermal medications are intended to produce systemic effects

32
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Iontophoresis uses which method to intoduce medication into subcutaneous tissues?

Electrical current

33
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Which federal agency registers health care practitioners who prescribe or dispense controlled substances?

Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA)

34
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Which statement best describes a black box warning?

It is the strongest FDA-required warning regarding serious adverse events.

35
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NSAIDs decrease pain, inflammation, and fever primarily by:

inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis

36
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Which adverse effect should be a particular concern in an athlete using NSAIDs regularly?

gastrointestinal bleeding

37
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Why should a local anesthetic combined with epinephrine generally be avoided in fingers, toes, ears, and the tip of the nose?

Vasoconstriction may compromise circulation in these areas

38
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Which statement accurately differentiates between bactericidal and bacteriostatic antibiotics?

Bactericidal drugs kill bacteria; bacteriostatic drugs inhibit further replication.

39
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Which practice contributes most directly to antibiotic resistance?

Discontinuing therapy prematurely once symptoms improve

40
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An athlete needs medication for exercise-induced bronchospasm. Which agent and effect are most consistent with the slides?

Albuterol; beta-adrenergic stimulation that widens bronchi and bronchioles

41
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Which category of medication provides pain relief?

analgesic

42
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Which category of medication is used to reduce fever?

antipyretic