TS PMO

Two pure-breeding pea strains (yellow and green) are crossed. All F1 progeny are yellow. Selfing the F1 will produce:

a)all yellow progeny

b)50% yellow and 50% green progeny

c)25% yellow and 75% green progeny

d)75% yellow and 25% green progeny

a) 75% yellow and 25% green progeny

Two pure-breeding pea strains (yellow and green) are crossed. All F1 progeny are yellow. What proportion of the F2 will be pure-breeding?

a)100%

b)75%

c)50%

d)25%

c)50%

If a pea plant of genotype GgRr is test-crossed, what phenotype ratios are expected among the progeny?

a)1:1:1:1

b)9:3:3:1

c)1:3:3:1

d)1:2:1

1:1:1:1

Based on the pedigree below for a single-gene trait, what is the probability that the next child born to these parents will have the trait? (the image is a white square making baby with white circle and their offspring is a blue circle and a white square freakometry fr)

a)zero

b)1/4

c)1/2

d)3/4

If the parents below have two more children, what is the probability that both children will display the phenotype of the parents? (Same pedigree)

a)1/2

b)3/4

c)9/16

d)1

B) 1/4

C 9/16

Miniature wings (min) is an X-linked recessive mutation in fruit flies. If a min-winged female is crossed to a wild-type male, what proportion of the F1 progeny will have min wings?

a)0%

b)25%

c)50%

d)100%

c)50%

In sheep, coat color is influenced by two genes. Gene A influences pigment production, while gene B produces black or brown pigment. If two heterozygous white sheep resulted in 12 white sheep, 3 black sheep, and 1 brown sheep, which genotype(s) of the white sheep explain this data?

A) The white sheep could be A_B_ or aaB_.

B) The white sheep could be A_B_ or aabb.

C) The white sheep could be A_B_ or A_bb.

D) The white sheep must all be aabb.

E) The white sheep must all be A_B_.

C) The white sheep could be A_B_ or A_bb.

Crossing true-breeding strains of petunia (red ´ white) produces an F1 with only pink flowers. What phenotype ratios are expected in the F2?

a)all pink

b)½ red : ½ pink

c)¾ red : ¼ white

d)¼ red : ½ pink : ¼ white

d)¼ red : ½ pink : ¼ white

•Typical ratios resulting from epistatic interactions in dihybrid crosses would be ________.

•A) 9:3:3:1, 1:2:1

•B) 1:1:1:1, 1:4:6:4:1

•C) 9:3:4, 9:7

•D) 1:2:2:4:1:2:1:2:1, 1:2:1

•E) 3:1, 1:1

•C) 9:3:4, 9:7

In sheep, assume the presence of horns is due to a single gene. Both males and females may have horns, but horns are present in heterozygous males, though not heterozygous females. This is a good example of

A. sex-linkage on the X chromosome

B. sex-linkage on the Y chromosome

C. sex-limited inheritance

D. sex-influenced inheritance

E. sex-patterned inheritance

D. sex-influenced inheritance

•Unlike many other genetic disorders, Huntington's disease is caused by a full penetrance disease allele. Full penetrance means what?

•A) The longer the allele (more triplet repeats), the more likely the disease is to occur in an individual.

•B) There are other genes that are also required for an individual to get Huntington's disease.

•C) There are environmental factors beyond age that are also required for an individual to get Huntington's disease.

•D) Individuals with a disease allele are almost certain to get Huntington's disease.

•E) Heterozygotes are just as likely to get Huntington's disease as homozygotes.

•D) Individuals with a disease allele are almost certain to get Huntington's disease.

29) What separates in meiosis I to reduce the diploid number (2n) of chromosomes to the haploid number (n)?

A) Sister chromatids

B) Kinetochores

C) Linked Alleles

D) Homologous Chromosomes

E) Chiasmata

D) Homologous Chromosomes

In which nuclear division process do sister chromatids segregate?

a)only in mitosis

b)only in meiosis I

c)only in meiosis II

d)in mitosis and meiosis II

d)in mitosis and meiosis II

In mitosis, sister chromatids are separated during Fill in the blank, while sister chromatids are separated in Fill in the blank of meiosis.

A. prophase; prophase I

B. anaphase; anaphase I

C. metaphase; metaphase I

D. anaphase; anaphase II

E. metaphase; metaphase II

D. anaphase; anaphase II

This is a picture of a cell from an organism whose somatic cells are 2n. What stage of mitosis or meiosis is this cell in?

A. Metaphase of mitosis

B. Metaphase I of meiosis I

C. Metaphase II of meiosis II

D. Could be either metaphase of mitosis or metaphase II of meiosis II

E. Impossible to tell

B. Metaphase I of meiosis I

A diploid somatic ("body") cell has 2n = 20 chromosomes. At the end of mitosis, each daughter cell would have tchromosomes. At the end of meiosis I, each daughter cell would have Fill in the blank chromosomes. At the end of meiosis II, each daughter cell would have Fill in the blank chromosomes.

A. 2n = 20, 2n = 20, 1n = 10

B. 2n = 20, 2n = 10, 1n = 10

C. 1n = 10, 1n = 10, 1n = 10

D. 2n = 20, 2n = 20, 1n = 20

E. 2n = 20, 1n = 10, 1n = 10

E. 2n = 20, 1n = 10, 1n = 10

A human individual with 45 chromosomes has a Fill in the blank.

A. monosomy

B. trisomy

C. monoploidy

D. diploidy

E. triploidy

A. monosomy

A human individual with 47 chromosomes has a Fill in the blank.

A. monosomy

B. trisomy

C. monoploidy

D. diploidy

E. triploidy

B. trisomy

An acentric chromosome fragment is produced by recombination between a rearranged and normal homolog in which of the following?

a)partial chromosome duplication

b)paracentric inversion

c)pericentric inversion

d)reciprocal translocation

B. paracentric inversion

23. The genes ACD occur in that order in fruit flies. A is 20 map units from C, and C is 30 map units from D What is the expected frequency of double crossovers?

A)6%

B)2%

C)20%

D)72%

E).06%

A)6%

In sweet peas, the genes for flower color and pollen grain shape are 11 cM apart. A pure-

breeding purple flowering plant with round pollen grains is crossed to a pure-breeding red

flowering plant with long pollen grains. The resulting F1 offspring are all purple flowering plants

with long pollen grains. What percent of offspring from a test cross analysis of the F1 individuals

would you expect to be purple flowering plants with long pollen grains?

A) 44.5

B) 11

C) 5.5

D) 89

E) 39

C) 5.5

**The correct order was V-B-S**

27) What is the distance between the genes for B and V?

27) What is the distance between the genes for B and V?

A) 10 m.u. = (.042+.038+.009+.011)

B) 5 m.u.

C) 11 m.u.

D)22 m.u.

E) 44 m.u.

A) 10 m.u. = (.042+.038+.009+.011)

Linkage affects expected ratios because it violates which of Mendel's postulates?

A. There are two alleles for a gene in diploid organisms.

B. Alleles undergo segregation at meiosis.

C. Alleles have dominant/recessive relationships.

D. Homologs independently assort in meiosis.

E. Linkage does not affect ratios.

D. Homologs independently assort in meiosis.

The genes A B C occur in that order in fruit flies. A is 10 map units from B, and B is 20 map units from C. What is the expected frequency of double crossovers?

A. .02 %

B. 2%

C. 10%

D. 20%

E. 30%

B. 2%

Which of the following is a property of RNA polymerase core enzyme but not the holoenzyme in E.coli?

A) Recruit the promoter to the transcriptional start site.

B) DNA unwinding.

C) 5' to 3' RNA transcription (majority)

D) promoter recognition and binding.

E) 5' to 3' DNA synthesis

C) 5' to 3' RNA transcription (majority)

Which DNA template below encodes the DNA sequence 5'-GACCTC-3'?

a)3'-GACCTC-5'

b)3'-CTGGAG-5'

c)5'-CTGGAG-3'

d)3'-CUGGAC-5'

b)3'-CTGGAG-5'

If translation begins with the first start codon in the mRNA below, the second codon would be which of the following?

3'-CGGAUGCACUUGACAAUCCGUAGAC-5'

a)5'-CAC-3'

b)5'-GGA-3'

c)5'-UGC-3'

d)5'-CCU-3'

d)5'-CCU-3'

In humans, the phenylalanine hydroxylase gene is 90,000 (90 k b) bases long, yet the m R N A is only 2,400 (2.4 k b). What explains this difference?

A. R N A editing

B. Removal of exons in the final m R N A

C. Loss of stability without a 5′cap

D. Presence of introns in D N A

E. Code for poly-A tail that is removed in m R N A

D. Presence of introns in D N A

41) During elongation, the charged tRNA is recruited to which location/site on the ribosome?

A-site

During initiation, the charged tRNA is recruited to which location/site on the ribosome?

P-site

Termination the release factor enters the what site of the ribosome, not a tRNA. The release factor is a protein that recognizes the stop codon on the mRNA.

A-Site

What is the name given to the three bases in a messenger RNA that bind to the anticodon of tRNA to specify an amino acid placement in a protein? And a base at the first position of an anticodon on the tRNA would pair with a base at the ________ position of the mRNA. (2 points)

Name of three bases: codon

Base position of tRNA: 5'

Base position of mRNA: 3'

This type of reversion mutation is able to restore the wild type phenotype due to a multiple mutations:

A. Ligation reversion

B. True reversion

C. Intragenic Reversion

D. Second-site reversion

E. Conjugation reversion

D. Second-site reversion

1)You want to design a drug that prevents transcription of eukaryotic mRNAs but does not affect transcription of other RNAs. What enzyme would you target?

•A) RNA Polymerase II

•B) Primase

•C) RNA Polymerase III

•D) Telomerase

•E) RNA Polymerase III

A) RNA Polymerase II

48) In initiation of bacterial translation, the initiator tRNA is charged with_______ (which is not the same as eukaryotes).

formylmethionine, fmet

48) What allows the RNA polymerase holoenzyme to recognize the promoter and bind to it, but is not found in the core polymerase in E. coli?

The sigma (σ) factor

Which of the following is a property of

RNA polymerase holoenzyme but not core polymerase in E. coli?

promoter recognition and binding

Which of the following is a property of

core polymerase but not RNA polymerase holoenzyme in E. coli?

5' to 3' RNA polymerization (majority)

Which term would be applied to a regulatory condition that occurs when protein is associated with a particular section of DNA and greatly reduces transcription?

A) negative control

B) positive control

C) induction

D) reduction

E) compression

A) negative control

If a corepressor is inhibited, what effect would you expect to see on transcription in a repressible operon?

Answer: Transcription will occur.

Which proteins facilitate RNA polymerase binding at promoters to increase levels of transcription?

Answer: activator proteins

•DNA methylation may be a significant mode of genetic regulation in eukaryotes. Methylation refers to ________.

•A) altering RNA polymerase activity by methylation

•B) changes in DNA-DNA hydrogen binding

•C) altering translational activity, especially of highly methylated tRNAs

•D) alteration of DNA polymerase activity by addition of methyl groups to glycine residues

•E) addition of methyl groups to the cytosine of CG doublets

E) addition of methyl groups to the cytosine of CG doublets

•If the protein Dicer is not functioning, then which kind of posttranscriptional gene regulation is most likely affected?

•A) alternative splicing

•B) alternative adenylation

•C) only microRNA (miRNA), but not small interfering RNA (siRNA)

•D) small interfering RNA (siRNA)

•E) microRNA (miRNA) and small interfering RNA (siRNA)

•E) microRNA (miRNA) and small interfering RNA (siRNA)