VTNE SA Diseases MT Review

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201 Terms

1
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To fill prescriptions or administer a medication, technicians must be familiar with medical abbreviations. Which of the following abbreviations indicates a medication that is to be applied to both eyes?

a. AU

b. OD

c. OS

d. OU

d. OU

2
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The proper pathway in which an animal perceives pain is:

a. Transduction, transmission, modulation, perception

b. Transmission, modulation, transduction, perception

c. Perception, transmission, modulation, transduction

d. Transduction, transmission, perception, modulation

a. Transduction, transmission, modulation, perception

3
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Which of the following is the most commonly seen cardiovascular disease in the dog?

a. Boxer right ventricular cardiomyopathy

b. Dilated cardiomyopathy

c. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

d. Ventricular septal defect

b. Dilated cardiomyopathy

4
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Which of the following endocrine diseases results in hyponatremia and hyperkalemia in a dog?

a. Hyperadrenocorticism

b. Hypoadrenocorticism

c. Hyperthyroidism

d. Hypothyroidism

b. Hypoadrenocorticism

5
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Halitosis is an indication of a problem with which of the following body systems?

a. Cardiovascular

b. Digestive

c. Nervous

d. Hematologic

b. Digestive

6
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Which of the following endocrine diseases results in weight loss and a ravenous appetite in cats?

a. Hyperadrenocorticism

b. Hypoadrenocorticism

c. Hyperthyroidism

d. Hypothyroidism

c. Hyperthyroidism

7
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The transparent covering of the front of the eye is called the:

a. Lens

b. Iris

c. Pupil

d. Cornea

d. Cornea

8
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Which of the following endocrine diseases results in weight gain, bradycardia, exercise intolerance, and lethargy in a dog?

a. Hyperadrenocorticism

b. Hypoadrenocorticism

c. Hyperthyroidism

d. Hypothyroidism

d. Hypothyroidism

9
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Hypoxemia is defined as:

a. A decreased circulating blood volume

b. Low blood oxygen levels

c. Low tissue oxygen levels

d. An increase in circulating fluid of the body.

b. Low blood oxygen levels

10
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Which of the following conditions is a common sign of heart failure?

a. Tachypnea

b. Bradypnea

c. Tachycardia

d. Bradycardia

a. Tachypnea

11
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The most common presenting sign in a patient with undiagnosed severe hypertension is:

a. Anoxia

b. Cardiomyopathy

c. Blindness

d. Hypothyroidism

c. Blindness

12
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Which of the following is the passive expulsion of material from the mouth, pharynx, or esophagus?

a. Regurgitation

b. Vomiting

c. Hematemesis

d. Hypersalivation

a. Regurgitation

13
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The loss of body water that has a solute concentration equal to that which remains in the compartment is called:

a. Isotonic dehydration

b. Hypovolemia

c. Hypotonic dehydration

d. Hypertonic dehydration

b. Hypovolemia

14
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A patient with an increased pack cell volume (PCV) and and an elevated total solids (TS) is likely suffering from:

a. Protein loss

b. Dehydration

c. Anemia

d. Poor perfusion

b. Dehydration

15
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Which of the following is the series of joint, segment, and whole-body movements used for locomotion?

a. Gait

b. Gallop

c. Stance

d. Stride

a. Gait

16
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When filling a prescription or administering medication to a patient, the technician must be familiar with medical abbreviation. Which of the following abbreviations indicates a medication is to be applied to the right ear?

a. AD

b. AS

c. AU

d. OD

a. AD

17
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Which of the following is the act of manually providing movement of joints without muscle contraction in a repetitive manner?

a. Active range of motion

b. Passive range of motion

c. Proprioception

d. Stretching

b. Passive range of motion

18
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Which of the following is a nursing intervention to allow a neurologic patient to void urine?

a. Atonic bladder

b. Bladder expression

c. Bladder palpation

d. Distension urination

b. Bladder expression

19
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Which area of the brain is responsible for higher functions such as learning, memory, and interpretation of sensory input (e.g., vision and pain recognition)?

a. Cerebrum

b. Thalamus

c. Hypothalamus

d. Reticular formation

a. Cerebrum

20
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Which of the following statements is true of urinary catheterization?

a. Disinfecting of the prepuce is not required

b. The catheter must be disinfected periodically

c. After the catheter is properly placed, there is no concern for dislodgment

d. Aseptic technique is not required when handling the collection bag

b. The catheter must be disinfected periodically

21
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The work of respiratory system can be divided into the following four parts. The movement of gases across the alveolar membrane is called:

a. Diffusion

b. Distribution

c. Perfusion

d. Ventilation

d. Ventilation

22
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Which of the following is a type of pain that can be beneficial in that it can allow the animal to avoid damaging stimuli?

a. Neuropathic pain

b. Physiologic pain

c. Somatic pain

d. Visceral pain

b. Physiologic pain

23
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Which of the following is defined as an increase in serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen level?

a. Anemia

b. Azotemia

c. Hypoproteinemia

d. Isosthenuria

b. Azotemia

24
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A common clinical sign of saddle thrombus in the cat is:

a. Acute onset of front leg pain and paresis

b. Acute onset of rear leg pain and paresis

c. Bright red foot pads

d. Bounding pulses in the rear limbs

b. Acute onset of rear leg pain and paresis

25
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The stomach is located in the left cranial abdomen. When food is ingested, it mixes with gastric juices, and then it propels to which part of the small intestine?

a. Cecum

b. Duodenum

c. Pylorus

d. Serosa

b. Duodenum

26
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Jaundice might develop as disease progresses in which of the following organs?

a. Heart

b. Intestinal

c. Kidney

d. Liver

d. Liver

27
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Which of the following is considered a zoonotic disease?

a. Cholangiohepatitis

b. Infectious canine hepatitis

c. Leptospirosis

d. Toxin-induced liver disease

c. Leptospirosis

28
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The first drug of choice for a cat that experiences status epilepticus is:

a. Diazepam

b. Pentobarbital

c. Potassium bromide

d. Propofol

a. Diazepam

29
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Tension pneumothorax occurs when pressure in the thoracic cavity is:

a. Less than atmospheric pressure

b. Equal to atmospheric pressure

c. Greater than atmospheric pressure

d. Constant as animal breathes in and out

c. Greater than atmospheric pressure

30
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The underlying disease for most cases of feline aortic thromboembolism is _______ in origin.

a. Cardiac

b. Hepatic

c. Renal

d. Respiratory

a. Cardiac

31
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A patient is experiencing cardiopulmonary arrest. The most desirable route of drug administration is:

a. Intratracheal

b. Intracardiac

c. Intravenous

d. Intraosseous

c. Intravenous

32
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What does the presence of petechiae and ecchymoses indicate in a patient?

a. Anemia

b. Coagulation disorder

c. Dehydration

d. Hypertension

b. Coagulation disorder

33
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During emergency intubation, the cranial nerve _______ may be stimulated, resulting in ___________.

a. I; bradycardia

b. IV; tachycardia

c. X; bradycardia

d. XII; tachycardia

c. X; bradycardia

34
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What does the presence of peripheral edema indicate?

a. Coagulation disorder

b. Hypoproteinemia

c. Hypotension

d. Hypoxia

b. Hypoproteinemia

35
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Blood levels of total bilirubin are used primarily to evaluate function of the:

a. Kidneys

b. Liver

c. Pancreas

d. Bile ducts

b. Liver

36
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Deficiencies in iron may result in anemia. Which of these minerals may also cause anemia if it is deficient in a dog's or a cat's diet?

a. Calcium

b. Phosphorus

c. Copper

d. Zinc

c. Copper

37
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A hospital-acquired disease is known as:

a. Endemic

b. Nosocomial

c. Ergasteric

d. Iatrogenic

b. Nosocomial

38
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A decrease in albumin may occur in cases experiencing:

a. Chronic liver disease

b. Carnivorous diet

c. Gastroenteritis

d. Vegetarian diet

c. Gastroenteritis

39
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The majority of water and certain electrolytes, especially sodium, are absorbed in the:

a. Esophagus

b. Stomach

c. Small intestine

d. Large intestine

d. Large intestine

40
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Ketonuria is most commonly associated with what condition?

a. Liver disease

b. Urinary tract infection

c. Renal failure

d. Diabetes mellitus

d. Diabetes mellitus

41
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Which least likely to be a clinical sign of a patient experiencing allergies?

a. Face rubbing

b. Ear problems

c. Loss of appetite

d. Skin rashes

c. Loss of appetite

42
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The presence of protein in the urine may indicate:

a. Acid-base imbalance

b. Hemolytic anemia

c. Kidney disease

d. Diabetes mellitus

c. Kidney disease

43
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Which clotting disorder is stimulated by hypothyroidism?

a. Hemophilia A

b. Von Willebrand disease

c. Disseminated intravascular coagulation

d. Coumarin toxicity

b. Von Willebrand disease

44
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Hyperkalemia is commonly associated with which endocrine disorder?

a. Diabetes insipidus

b. Hyperthyroidism

c. Hyperparathyroidism

d. Hypoadrenocorticism

d. Hypoadrenocorticism

45
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The forceful expulsion of stomach contents that requires abdominal contraction is:

a. Cachexia

b. Cathartics

c. Regurgitation

d. Vomiting

d. Vomiting

46
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If the patient is vomiting fresh or digested blood, this is termed:

a. Hematemesis

b. Hematochezia

c. Hematuria

d. Hemoabdomen

a. Hematemesis

47
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In what endocrine disorder is polyuria and polydipsia not commonly seen?

a. Hyperadrenocorticism

b. Diabetes insipidus

c. Hyperparathyroidism

d. Diabetes mellitus

c. Hyperparathyroidism

48
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How does marked dehydration affect an animal's eye?

a. Lateral nystagmus

b. Pinpoint pupils

c. Rotated ventrally

d. Sunken in the socket

d. Sunken in the socket

49
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Which of the following is a technique to keep from joints becoming stiff?

a. Cold compress

b. Coupage

c. Passive range of motion

d. Warm compress

c. Passive range of motion

50
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When a medical history of a patient with diarrhea is obtained, it is important to question the owner regarding the duration, severity, frequency, amount, and quality. This information can assist in localizing diarrhea as involving the small or large bowel. Which of these is a common indication of small bowel diarrhea?

a. Decreased volume of feces

b. Mucus in feces

c. Normal frequency of bowel movements

d. Tenesmus

c. Normal frequency of bowel movements

51
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Painful straining at urination or defecation is:

a. Hematochezia

b. Hematuria

c. Melena

d. Tenesmus

d. Tenesmus

52
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What is the underlying cause of icterus?

a. Anemia

b. Hyperbilirubinemia

c. Ketonuria

d. Hyperhemoglobinemia

b. Hyperbilirubinemia

53
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Pancreatitis occurs in both dogs and cats. Which of the following statements is false?

a. Acute pancreatitis is seen more commonly in dogs

b. Chronic pancreatitis is more common in cats

c. Chronic pancreatitis is often caused by dietary indiscretion

d. Acute pancreatitis is often caused by dietary indiscretion

c. Chronic pancreatitis is often caused by dietary indiscretion

54
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Treatment of acute pancreatitis includes administration of intravenous fluid therapy, analgesics, antiemetics, mucosal protectants, and antibiotics to prevent secondary sepsis. Treatment also includes which of the following?

a. Feeding a low protein, high fat diet

b. Feeding a bland, low fat diet

c. Feed a low carbohydrate, high fat diet

d. Feeding a diet high in fat and calories

b. Feeding a bland, low fat diet

55
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What type of anemia is associated with icterus?

a. Responsive

b. Nonresponsive

c. Hemolytic

d. Megaloblastic

c. Hemolytic

56
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With the exception of cats, most animals have a total blood volume equivalent to ______ of their body weight.

a. 7%

b. 15%

c. 25%

d. 40%

a. 7%

57
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Myasthenia graves is commonly associated with:

a. Megaesophagus

b. Exercise intolerance

c. Aspiration pneumonia

d. All of the above

d. All of the above

58
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Goals for the medical management of chronic kidney disease include all of the following except:

a. Slowing progression of the disease

b. Treating concurrent disease

c. Correcting electrolyte imbalances

d. Restoring loss of kidney function

d. Restoring loss of kidney function

59
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Which of the following is a postpartum complication caused by hypocalcemia?

a. Eclampsia

b. Galactostasis

c. Mastitis

d. Metritis

a. Eclampsia.

60
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Signs of immune-mediated thrombocytopenia (ITP) include all of the following conditions, except:

a. Petechiae

b. Ecchymoses

c. Thrombocytosis

d. Anemia

c. Thrombocytosis

61
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When the medical history of a patient with diarrhea is obtained, it is important to question the owner regarding the duration, severity, frequency, amount, and quality. This information can assist in localizing diarrhea as involving the small or large bowel. Which of these is a common indication of large bowel diarrhea?

a. Increased volume of feces

b. Mucus in feces

c. Normal frequency of bowel movements

d. Weight loss

b. Mucus in feces

62
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Cats exposed to feline leukemia virus typically respond in any of the following ways, except:

a. Not becoming infected at all

b. Becoming temporarily infected, developing immunity and overcoming the infection

c. Becoming infected and continuing to shed the virus indefinitely without becoming ill

d. Becoming infected, becoming ill within 3 days, and dying within a week

d. Becoming infected, becoming ill within 3 days, and dying within a week

63
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What is the predominant method for transmission of feline immunodeficiency virus in cats?

a. Grooming

b. Bite wounds

c. Urine

d. Feces

b. Bite wounds

64
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Inflammation, infection, sepsis, neoplasia, and reaction to transfusion of blood products are common causes of:

a. Hyperthermia

b. Hypothermia

c. Pyrexia

d. Pyridoxine

c. Pyrexia

65
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Which of the following is a common cause of bradycardia?

a. Hypovolemia

b. Hypoxia

c. Hypokalemia

d. Hyperkalemia

d. Hyperkalemia

66
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Polyuria is:

a. A lack of urine production

b. The production of excessive amounts of urine

c. A lack of water intake

d. Excessive protein in the urine

b. The production of excessive amounts of urine

67
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Oliguria is:

a. Excessive eating

b. Green urine

c. Excessive bilirubin in the urine

d. Decreased urine output

d. Decreased urine output

68
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Urinary tract infection is a common secondary complication in cats and dogs with:

a. Congestive heart failure

b. Diabetes mellitus

c. Hepatic lipidosis

d. Hyperthyroidism

b. Diabetes mellitus

69
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Anuria is:

a. Decreased urine output

b. Decreased drinking

c. Complete lack of urine production

d. Excessive drinking

c. Complete lack of urine production

70
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Painful urination is recorded as:

a. Dysuria

b. Hematuria

c. Pyuria

d. Proteinuria

a. Dysuria

71
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How might anesthesia affect an animal's eye?

a. Lateral nystagmus

b. Pinpoint pupils

c. Rotated ventrally

d. Sunken in the socket

c. Rotated ventrally

72
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Which of the following laboratory test would not be used to diagnose immune-mediated hemolytic anemia (IMHA)?

a. Autoagglutination test

b. CBC

c. Coombs test

d. Fructosamine

d. Fructosamine

73
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Which of the following signs would a regurgitating patient show?

a. Forceful contraction of the abdomen and diaphragm

b. Restlessness

c. Salivation

d. Undigested food in the expelled substance

d. Undigested food in the expelled substance

74
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What does the presence of green fluid in the vomitus indicate?

a. Gastric or esophageal disorder

b. Gastrointestinal ulceration

c. Involvement of bile in the duodenum

d. Pyloric outflow obstruction

c. Involvement of bile in the duodenum

75
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Patients with myasthenia graves may also suffer from megaesophagus and regurgitation. These patients are at increased risk for:

a. Acephalus

b. Aspiration

c. Asteatosis

d. Astrocytoma

b. Aspiration

76
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Which of the following choices characterizes the mucous membrane color and capillary refill time in a patient with liver disease?

a. Pale, prolonged

b. Pink, normal

c. Red, rapid

d. Yellow, normal

d. Yellow, normal

77
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What do black "coffee grounds" in the vomitus indicate?

a. Gastric or esophageal disorder

b. Gastrointestinal ulceration

c. Involvement of bile in the duodenum

d. Pyloric outflow obstruction

b. Gastrointestinal ulceration

78
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Which of the following types of cancer commonly arises from cartilage or bone?

a. Adenocarcinoma

b. Sarcoma

c. Lymphoma

d. Carcinoma

b. Sarcoma

79
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Massage is an example of which type of rehabilitation technique?

a. Manual therapy

b. Effleurage techniques

c. Physical modalities

d. Therapeutic exercise

a. Manual therapy

80
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What does high-frequency diarrhea with straining and mucus indicate?

a. Involvement of the stomach

b. Involvement of the jejunum or ileum

c. Involvement of the large intestine

d. Colitis

c. Involvement of the large intestine

81
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Visceral pain is common among companion animals. Which of the following is not an example of visceral pain?

a. Pancreatitis

b. Gastroenteritis

c. Bowel ischemia

d. Osteosarcoma

d. Osteosarcoma

82
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Which of the following is the shortest portion of the small intestine?

a. Cecum

b. Duodenum

c. Ileum

d. Jejunum

b. Duodenum

83
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What does frank blood in the diarrhea indicate?

a. Involvement of the stomach

b. Involvement of the jejunum or ileum

c. Involvement of the large intestine

d. Colitis

d. Colitis

84
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The large intestine begins at the:

a. Ascending colon

b. Ileocecocolic valve

c. Cecum

d. Transverse colon

b. Ileocecocolic valve

85
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Which of the following is most beneficial in preventing gastrointestinal ulceration?

a. Antibiotic administration

b. Enteral feeding

c. Famotidine

d. Withholding food (NPO)

b. Enteral feeding

86
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Treatment for joint mobility includes:

a. ROM

b. Stretching exercises

c. a and b

d. None of the above

c. a and b

87
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Which of the following are effects of hypothermia?

a. Increased metabolic rate

b. Decreased clotting time

c. Cardiac dysfunction

d. Increased peripheral blood flow

c. Cardiac dysfunction

88
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A traumatic cause of OA in dogs indicates obesity as a risk factor. What is the most common traumatic cause of OA in dogs?

a. Ruptured cruciate ligaments

b. Torn Achilles group

c. Hip dysplasia

d. Phalangeal fracture

a. Ruptured cruciate ligaments

89
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Which of these is an antinuclear drug used to treat ulcers of the stomach and upper small intestine?

a. Cimetidine

b. Famotidine

c. Ranitidine

d. Sucralfate

d. Sucralfate

90
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Which of the following is a sign of insulin overdose in treated diabetic patients?

a. Muscle wasting

b. Polyuria

c. Severe lethargy and seizures

d. Vomiting and halitosis

c. Severe lethargy and seizures

91
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Which of the following is a common cause of tachycardia:

a. Hypoxia

b. Hyperkalemia

c. Hypocalcemia

d. Toxin ingestion

a. Hypoxia

92
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Which of the following describes a patient suffering from eclampsia?

a. Hard, painful nipple, and galactostasis

b. Hypocalcemia, muscle spasms, fever, tachycardia, and seizures

c. In hard labor for 30 to 60 minutes with no new young produced

d. Vaginal discharge, vomiting, diarrhea, dehydration, anorexia, polyuria, and polydipsia

b. Hypocalcemia, muscle spasms, fever, tachycardia, and seizures

93
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It is important that the nursing care provided to paralyzed patients focuses on patient comfort. The prevention of decubital ulcers can be accomplished by all of the following procedures, except:

a. Frequent turning or repositioning the patient

b. Adequate padding in the cage or bed

c. Appropriate analgesic therapy

d. Massage

c. Appropriate analgesic therapy

94
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Which of the following is a technique used to increase blood flow to improve drainage and healing to an area?

a. Cold compress

b. Coupage

c. Passive range of motion

d. Warm compress

d. Warm compress

95
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A proptosed globe:

a. Can be caused by overzealous restraint of the animal

b. Is not considered an emergency

c. Can most easily occurs in dolichocephalic breeds, such as collies

d. Is commonly a consequence fo conjunctivitis

a. Can be caused by overzealous restraint of the animal

96
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Anterior drawer movement detects a problem with the:

a. Elbow

b. Stifle

c. Hip

d. Hock

b. Stifle

97
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Clear fluid removed from thoracic cavity is known as:

a. Pleural effusion

b. Pulmonary edema

c. Ascites

d. Pyothorax

a. Pleural effusion

98
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Chronic mitral valvular disease (endocardiosis) affects more than one third of patients older than:

a. 2 years

b. 5 years

c. 8 years

d. 10 years

d. 10 years

99
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The prevalence of dated (congestive) cardiomyopathy in cats has decreased markedly since 1987, following the discovery that ______ deficiency was the principal cause.

a. Glutamine

b. Taurine

c. Arginine

d. Copper

b. Taurine

100
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How might a neurologic issue affect an animal's eye?

a. Lateral nystagmus

b. Pinpoint pupils

c. Rotated ventrally

d. Sunken in the socket

b. Pinpoint pupils