Peterson's CLEP Psychology Practice Test #3

A psychologist studies the effect of sex hormones on aggressive behavior. Another compares the brain waves of depressed persons with those of schizophrenics. A third studies the effects of brain surgery on the eating behavior of laboratory rats. Despite the differences in their research, all three are probably

a) evolutionary psychologists.

b) structural psychologists.

c) physiological psychologists.

d) personality psychologists.

e) developmental psychologists. 1

The correct answer is C. Physiological psychologists seek information about the structure and functioning of the brain—its influence on our nervous system and emotions, and our behavior.

If a psychologist is interested in why people help or fail to help during an emergency, that psychologist likely specializes in

a) health psychology.

b) environmental psychology.

c) forensic psychology.

d) clinical psychology.

e) social psychology.

The correct answer is E. Social psychologists study the social conditions that influence human behavior.

In order to gather data quickly from a large number of people, a researcher would use the

a) experimental method.

b) correlational method.

c) naturalistic observation.

d) questionnaire method.

e) case history method.

The correct answer is D. A questionnaire is a set of written questions that can be answered by a large number of people, and then scored quickly.

Experiments use random assignment in order to

a) gather participants from a variety of sources.

b) eliminate the need for a control group.

c) increase the value of double-blind experiments.

d) prevent participants from guessing the true nature of the experiment.

e) minimize pre-existing differences between the groups.

The correct answer is E. In random assignment, participants are assigned to different experimental groups at random (equally likely to be assigned to any given group). This reduces the probability that there will be systematic, pre-existing differences between groups.

In an experiment designed to test the effect of alcohol on aggression, the randomly selected group that ingests soda instead of alcohol is called the

a) experimental group.

b) control group.

c) dependent group.

d) non-aggressive group.

e) independent group.

The correct answer is B. Control groups are used to provide a point of comparison with members of the experimental group. The control group provides a baseline against which to compare the changes produced by the experimental intervention.

Sigmund Freud turned his interests from medical to psychological processes after encountering patients suffering from

a) schizophrenia.

b) tuberculosis.

c) lung cancer.

d) severe depression.

e) hysterical conversion.

The correct answer is E. Freud became interested in patients suffering from hysteria, a disorder in which psychological factors cause physical symptoms.

The idea that human behavior is directed toward growth, self-expression, and fulfillment BEST characterizes

a) humanistic psychology.

b) cognitive psychology.

c) Freudian psychology.

d) behavioral psychology.

e) physiological psychology.

The correct answer is A. Humanistic theorists emphasize that the natural tendency for humans is towards healthy growth and self-actualization (fulfillment of potential).

Dr. Reisburg is studying the thinking process in infants. Her area of specialization is probably

a) introspection.

b) behaviorism.

c) sociology.

d) psychoanalysis.

e) cognitive psychology.

The correct answer is E. Cognitive psychologists study the ways in which we learn about our environment, store the knowledge in our memory, process that knowledge, and use it to act with forethought in novel situations.

Ethical guidelines for conducting experimental research require that psychologists must do all of the following EXCEPT

a) avoid violating the confidentiality of information provided by research subjects.

b) consider the dignity and welfare of research subjects.

c) avoid needless harm and exploitation of animal subjects.

d) not use coercion to get or keep participants for a study.

e) avoid experiments that bring discomfort or embarrassment to test subjects.

The correct answer is E. Ethical principles state that the participants must be protected from foreseeable harm, that they must not be coerced, and that they must be informed of all procedures in advance. In some research, participants could experience discomfort, but the benefits of the experiment should outweigh the costs.

The neuron receives messages from other neurons through its

a) axon.

b) nucleus.

c) cell body.

d) dendrites.

e) myelin.

The correct answer is D. Dendrites receive information from neurotransmitters, which are produced by other neurons to convey information.

Which of the following represents the correct order of transmission of a neural impulse?

a) The message is received by the cell body, passed down the axon, where it jumps across the synaptic gap and activates the dendrite.

b) The message is received by the dendrite, is passed to the axon, and then jumps across the synaptic gap to the cell body.

c) The message is received by the axon, and is passed to the cell body and then to the Dendrite.

d) The message avoids axons altogether, and passes from cell body to dendrite back to cell body.

e) The message is received by the dendrite, jumps across the synaptic gap to the axon, and is then passed to the cell body.

The correct answer is A. The communication between neurons is a never-ending chain. Any point on the neuron could be considered the starting point as long as:

a) dendrites always receive messages,

b) the cell body always decodes information gathered by the dendrite,

c) the axon always receives and forwards messages from the cell body, and

d) the axon sends messages - via neurotransmitters - to the dendrites of the next neuron.

A neuron usually fires when

a) it is malfunctioning.

b) it receives multiple messages at one time or in quick succession.

c) it receives a single message from another neuron.

d) messages arrive very slowly and are spaced far apart.

e) messages to inhibit are very strong.

The correct answer is B. Neurons accumulate information and fire - or send a message - when they receive multiple messages from other neurons at one time or in quick succession.

Folds and creases within the brain are most evident in the

a) cerebral cortex.

b) right hemisphere.

c) midbrain.

d) hypothalamus.

e) medulla.

The correct answer is A. The surface of the cerebral cortex has many folds and creases; this effectively increases the total surface area of the cortex.

Marvin's physician is looking at amplified tracings of his brain's electrical activity.

a) EKG.

b) EEG.

c) CAT scan.

d) MRI.

e) PET scan.

The correct answer is B. EEG is short for electroencephalograph. It measures electrical activity in the brain.

The cerebellum is

a) an extension of the front part of the cerebral cortex.

b) involved in the coordination of muscle movements.

c) the smallest lobe of the cerebral hemispheres.

d) a bundle of nerve fibers that allow the two hemispheres of the brain to communicate with each other.

e) found only in the human species.

The correct answer is B. The cerebellum is located at the bottom rear of the brain. Cerebellum means "little brain" and it assists with many of the tasks—particularly motor-based—that are performed by the four lobes of the cerebral cortex.

Coordination of breathing and heart rate is controlled primarily in a part of the brain stem called the

a) reticular formation.

b) pons.

c) medulla.

d) cerebrum.

e) hypothalamus.

The correct answer is C. The medulla controls breathing and heart rate.

The association cortex

a) monitors sensations.

b) is located in the brainstem.

c) controls body movement.

d) controls protective reflexive reactions.

e) is the seat of intellectual processes.

The correct answer is E. The association cortex controls higher intellectual functioning, while the sensory cortex monitors sensation and the motor cortex generates physical movement.

Getting used to an obnoxious odor in a closed room is an example of

a) desensitization.

b) sensory decrement.

c) selective attention.

d) sensory adaptation.

e) lateral inhibition.

The correct answer is D. Sensory adaptation is the tendency of sensory receptors to adjust to a stimulus and stop responding after a time.

The optic nerve leaves the retina at the

a) fovea.

b) blind spot.

c) macula.

d) iris.

e) optic chiasm.

The correct answer is B. The optic nerve leaves the eye and travels to the brain. Information from the right and left fields of vision cross over to the other side of the brain at the optic chiasm; this crossing over creates a slight blind spot.

The opponent-process theory suggests that color vision is determined by

a) three color receptors in the retina.

b) rods and cones directly opposite each other on the retina.

c) cells for blue-yellow, red-green, and white-black in the thalamus.

d) the variable transmission of light waves to the brain.

e) the angle at which the image falls on the retina

The correct answer is C. According to the opponent-process theory of color vision, our visual sensation of color results from three types of cones and rods. Each pair is turned on by one color and turned off by the opposite color. It is the particular pattern of impulses that determines what we see.

Jackie has an inner ear infection. The sense that she is MOST likely to notice because of its impairments is

a) selectivity.

b) hearing.

c) equilibrium.

d) kinesthesis.

e) adaptation.

The correct answer is C. Equilibrium is the sense of the position of our body, as well as our ability to maintain it in space. Equilibrium is maintained by a combination of gravity and the position of the fluid in the inner ear.

A cartoonist sketches characters in brief outline, yet people recognize them. The perceptual process by which we fill in gaps in order to "see" a complete object is

a) convergence.

b) perceptual constancy.

c) closure.

d) proximation.

e) interposition.

The correct answer is C. Closure is our tendency to fill in the gaps if an image is incomplete.

Visual cliff experiments on children suggest that depth perception is

a) at least partially an inborn ability.

b) related to the rule of closure.

c) learned at a very young age.

d) a function of both size and brightness constancy.

e) closely related to the sense of touch.

The correct answer is A. Babies as young as nine months old are reluctant to crawl on a pane of glass that looks down over a cloth several feet below.

A prototype (or schem

a) of a giraffe would be a(n)

a) innate image of what a giraffe looks like.

b) photo of a particular giraffe.

c) idea of how a giraffe feeds.

d) a list of giraffe features.

e) generalized mental model of a giraffe.

The correct answer is E. A prototype is a "best example" of a category, containing the main features of that category. Therefore, a robin is a good prototype of a bird (feathers, flight), and a penguin is not.

Pheromones are

a) receptor cells for vision.

b) receptor cells for taste and smell.

c) odor chemicals produced by animals.

d) devices for measuring sound loss in humans.

e) chemical substances that help neurons communicate.

The correct answer is C. Pheromones are odorous chemical secretions that are sexually attractive to members of the same species. They are important in animal sexual behavior but contribute little to human sexual behavior.

REM sleep typically begins approximately how long after one falls asleep?

a) within a half-hour

b) 70-90 minutes

c) 90-120 minutes

d) 120-180 minutes

e) anytime after 180 minutes

The correct answer is B. REM sleep occurs towards the end of each sleep cycle. Each sleep cycle lasts approximately 90 minutes.

During a typical night's sleep, most people experience about _____ complete cycles of sleep.

a) two or three

b) four or five

c) seven or eight

d) ten or more

e) the number varies with each individual.

The correct answer is B. One sleep cycle is 90 minutes and most people sleep eight hours.

Betty has just had a baby and wonders if her baby is sleeping too much. You could tell her that an infant sleeps as many as _____ hours a day.

a) 24

b) 22

c) 18

d) 9-10

e) 7-8

The correct answer is C. Babies sleep up to 18 hours per day.

Research into the causes of alcoholism has shown all of the following EXCEPT

a) people can become alcoholics even if they do not have a genetic predisposition towards alcoholism.

b) heredity apparently plays some role.

c) there is an alcoholic personality type.

d) males are heavier drinkers than females.

e) it occurs in persons from all walks of life.

The correct answer is C. There is no one personality type that is associated with alcoholism.

Drugs that are used to boost energy, stay awake, or lose weight are called

a) amphetamines.

b) endorphins.

c) opiates.

d) hallucinogens

e) neurotoxins

The correct answer is A. Amphetamines are also known as stimulants.

In behavioral terms, a reflex action would be called a(n)

a) conditioned stimulus.

b) unconditioned stimulus.

c) conditioned response.

d) unconditioned response.

e) paired association

The correct answer is D. An unconditioned response does not have to be learned. It reflexively occurs in the presence of an unconditioned stimulus. A dog does not need to learn to drool (UCR) when presented with meat (UCS).

In classical conditioning, the stimulus that does NOT initially produce a conditioned response is the

a) unconditioned stimulus.

b) unlearned stimulus.

c) conditioned stimulus.

d) orienting stimulus.

e) positive reinforcer.

The correct answer is C. In classical conditioning, a previously neutral stimulus comes to have meaning (becomes a conditioned stimulus) only after repeated pairings with the unconditioned stimulus.

If you salivate at the sight of McDonald's "Golden Arches," you are showing

a) an unconditioned response.

b) a reflex action.

c) a conditioned stimulus.

d) a conditioned response.

e) learned helplessness.

The correct answer is D. A conditioned response is a learned response. It occurs after exposure to the conditioned stimulus and mimics the unconditioned response. In Pavlov's experiment, the dogs learned to drool to the sound of the bell (CS) after the bell had been repeatedly paired with food (UCS).

In conditioning, when a stimulus that is similar but not identical to the conditioned stimulus also elicits the conditioned response, the phenomenon is called

a) paired association.

b) stimulus discrimination.

c) stimulus generalization.

d) response discrimination.

e) response generalization.

The correct answer is C. Stimulus generalization is the tendency to respond in the same way to any stimulus that is similar to the original stimulus.

In Watson's experiment with Albert, the unconditioned response was

a) fear of the rat.

b) fear of John Watson.

c) a loud noise.

d) a white rat.

e) fear of the loud noise.

The correct answer is E. An unconditioned response is a behavior that occurs automatically. People are reflexively afraid of loud noises.

A concept primarily related to operant but not to classical conditioning is

a) reinforcement.

b) shaping.

c) stimulus discrimination.

d) spontaneous recovery.

e) stimulus generalization.

The correct answer is B. Operant conditioning explains the role of reinforcement in learning. Shaping a behavior incrementally is a form of reinforcement. It does not have a comparable counterpart in classical conditioning.

If, three hours after the event, a two-year-old child is rewarded for "going potty," this delayed reward will probably

a) extinguish all bowel behavior.

b) cause him not to mess his pants again.

c) cause him to expect a reward whenever he uses the toilet.

d) make the child want to "go potty" more often.

e) have no effect on the child's behavior.

The correct answer is E. Delayed rewards or punishments are ineffective reinforcers for animals or young children; they cannot make the connection between the event and the reinforcement because of the time lapse.

A child is rewarded with candy after every 30 minutes that she behaves appropriately.

a) shaping.

b) continuous reinforcement.

c) a variable interval schedule of reinforcement.

d) a fixed interval schedule of reinforcement.

e) a fixed ratio schedule.

The correct answer is D. Fixed refers to an event that is predictable. Interval refers to the passage of time. This child is being rewarded on a fixed interval schedule.

Token economy programs involve principles of

a) punishment.

b) operant conditioning.

c) classical conditioning.

d) bio .

e) latent learning.

The correct answer is B. In a token economy, objects given as rewards can be accumulated and exchanged for other reinforcers. Reinforcement is central to operant conditioning.

Punishment is

a) more effective than the use of rewards.

b) inconsistent with operant principles.

c) most effective when used with rewards.

d) totally inappropriate with babies and animals.

e) not able to produce a significant change in behavior.

The correct answer is C. Although punishment can decrease the frequency of behaviors, it tends only to suppress the unwanted behavior. Rewarding alternative positive behavior as well is more effective than utilizing punishment alone.

Observational learning is often referred to as

a) modeling.

b) insight.

c) mimicry

d) alpha-conditioning.

e) higher-order conditioning.

The correct answer is A. Another term for observational learning is modeling.

Sarah remembers things better when she hears them than when she reads them. Sarah's learning style favors _____ encoding.

a) semantic

b) acoustic

c) iconic

d) implicit

e) mnemonic

The correct answer is B. Acoustic means "sound."

Jennifer and Paneka both remember going to a party, but they disagree on who was there. They differ in their

a) procedural memory.

b) working memory.

c) semantic memory.

d) episodic memory.

e) implicit memory.

The correct answer is D. Episodic memory is memory of personal experiences.

Interference with memory is MOST LIKELY to occur when you are

a) in a positive emotional state.

b) in a negative emotional state.

c) anxious.

d) learning information dissimilar to earlier learning.

e) learning material similar to earlier learning.

The correct answer is E. Interference theory states that when people forget it is not because the memories are actually lost, but because other information gets in the way of what a person is trying to remember. This tendency is increased when two items from memory become confused because they are too similar.

If you think of "BEGS" to remember "butter, eggs, garbage bags, soap" at the grocery store, you are using

a) consolidation learning.

b) a mnemonic device.

c) the method of loci.

d) a memory chunk.

e) memory encoding transfer.

The correct answer is B. A mnemonic device is a memory aid, particularly for straight memorization. It often involves chunking and/or elaboration.

"Mary yelled at John" is different from "John yelled at Mary" because of

a) semantics.

b) syntax.

c) phonemes.

d) parapraxes.

e) heuristics.

The correct answer is B. Syntax is the rules of grammar that relate to sentence structure.

Heuristics refers to

a) mathematical formulas and procedures.

b) "rules of thumb" that are likely to be successful in problem solving.

c) listening carefully to instructions from an experimenter.

d) a technique which, if followed, will always yield the correct solution.

e) techniques that can be used to enhance memory.

The correct answer is B. Heuristics are "rules of thumb" or mental shortcuts.

A test that measures how much one knows about U.S. history would be called a(n)

a) aptitude test.

b) achievement test.

c) intelligence test.

d) avocation test.

e) validity test.

The correct answer is B. An achievement test measures accumulated knowledge in a specific area or domain; aptitude tests measure what a person is likely to be good at without specific learning.

Which of the following does NOT explain the gap in IQ scores between blacks and whites?

a) environmental stressors in poor neighborhoods.

b) heredity and biologically-based differences.

c) differences in average levels of nutrition.

d) differences in socioeconomic status.

e) differences in levels of criticism in the early years at school

The correct answer is B. Most psychologists agree that there is no biological basis for difference in IQ scores between different races. In this society, race is often entwined (confounde

d) with socioeconomic status, which in turn correlates with differences in intellectual development.

A standardized test is one that

a) has been pre-tested on a representative sample of the group for whom the test is intended.

b) should accurately measure what it claims to measure.

c) should produce consistent results when given at different times to the same person.

d) compares an individual's score against the scores of other people taking the test.

e) does all of the above choices.

The correct answer is E. A standardized test requires participants to answer a series of questions that are identical for all participants (a and

d). It should ideally be both valid, (

b), and reliable, (

c).

Evidence from research suggests that facial expressions associated with the basic emotions are NOT LIKELY to be

a) learned by imitation.

b) acquired from .

c) classically conditioned responses.

d) programmed by heredity.

e) substantially different from one culture to another.

The correct answer is E. The six main emotions appear to be universal; they are easily recognized by people from diverse cultures.

According to the cognitive theory of emotion, the experience of an emotion depends on

a) a conscious decision of whether or not to experience an emotion.

b) autonomic nervous system arousal and the cognitive interpretation of a situation.

c) the state of mind prior to entering a situation and the arousal of the thalamus.

d) personality traits and the nature of a situation.

e) the particular chemical changes in the hypothalamus and the labeling of a sensation.

The correct answer is B. The cognitive theory of emotion (also called the two-factor theory) maintains that many different emotions have similar types of physiological arousal. It is the context and the cognitive label used that differentiates one emotion from another.

The area of the brain that seems MOST CLOSELY related to hunger is the

a) cerebral cortex.

b) amygdala.

c) corpus callosum.

d) hypothalamus.

e) medulla.

The correct answer is D. The hypothalamus regulates basic survival needs: hunger, fight vs.flight, and reproductive behavior.

People who are particularly sensitive to the experience of pain

a) may have overactive fast pathways.

b) may be deficient in endorphin production.

c) may have a malfunctioning gate-control mechanism.

d) may have an overproduction of prostaglandins.

e) may have too many pain receptors in their skin.

The correct answer is B. Endorphins are the body's naturally-produced pain killers.

The direction taken by the motive for sex defines our

a) sexual orientation.

b) sexual attitudes.

c) lack of inhibition.

d) sexual energy.

e) erotophilia.

The correct answer is A. Sexual orientation is the attraction felt towards persons of a given sex.

The correct term for people who feel that their physical bodies are at odds with their psychological identity are called

a) heterosexual.

b) bisexual.

c) transvestites.

d) homosexual.

e) transsexual.

The correct answer is E. Transsexuals feel that they are in the wrong body.

Self-actualization is most likely to be related to

a) intrinsic motivation.

b) extrinsic motivation.

c) drives.

d) emotions.

e) needs.

The correct answer is A. Self -actualizers - those who attempt to fulfill their maximum potential - are likely to be internally (intrinsically) motivated.

The sex of a child is determined by the genetic contribution of

a) the father.

b) the mother.

c) any ancestor.

d) either parent.

e) both parents.

The correct answer is A. Females are genetically XX. They contribute an "X" chromosome to all of their offspring. Males are XY. They contribute an "X" to 50% of their children, on average, and a "Y" to the other 50%.

Which is NOT true of early physical growth?

a) Newborn babies have all the muscle fibers they will ever possess.

b) The skeleton at birth is largely composed of cartilage that is softer and more pliable.

c) Some of the fibers of the nervous system develop protective sheaths that make them faster and more efficient conductors of nervous impulses.

d) As the child grows, unused synapses in the brain are "pruned."

e) The process of maturation can be speeded up to a great extent by exercise and stimulation.

The correct answer is E. Infants appear to be biologically preprogrammed to develop motor skills at about the same age, regardless of early experience.

In Jean Piaget's theory, the order in which developmental stages occur is

a) sensorimotor, concrete operational, formal operational, preoperational.

b) preoperational, sensorimotor, concrete operational, formal operational.

c) sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational.

d) preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational, sensorimotor.

e) sensorimotor, preoperational, formal operational, concrete operational.

The correct answer is C. The correct order of development for Piaget's stages is sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational.

Infants who are securely attached

a) fear strangers.

b) are indifferent to the presence of the mother.

c) becomes anxious when the mother leaves.

d) use the mother as a secure base.

e) are always in close contact with the mother.

The correct answer is D. Infants who are securely attached use the mother as a secure base from which to explore the environment and gradually develop independence.

People with bulimia

a) are often normal weight.

b) are most often middle aged females.

c) use extreme dieting.

d) are more often male than female.

e) are more commonly black adolescents, while white adolescents tend toward anorexia.

The correct answer is A. Bulimics tend to binge and then purge, whereas anorexics severely restrict their caloric intake and are very underweight.

Of the following, the person who is MOST LIKELY to be at the conventional level of moral reasoning is

a) John, who decides not to steal a book because he might be punished.

b) Jerry, who decides to contribute to the building fund because he is afraid his friends will disapprove of him if he doesn't.

c) Sandra, who resists the urge to run a red light at 3 a.m. because she doesn't want a ticket.

d) Arthur, who decides to contribute to the building fund because of self-developed moral principles.

e) Ken, who decides to follow through on a commitment he made because he fears revenge by his partners if he doesn't follow through.

The correct answer is B. People who are at the conventional level of moral development are concerned with social order and acceptance.

Women going through menopause

a) cease menstruating.

b) may have hot flashes.

c) may experience mood swings.

d) are, on average, in their early 50s.

e) all of the choices are correct.

The correct answer is E. All of the choices are correct.

Of the following, the MOST common order of occurrence of Kubler-Ross's stages of death and dying is

a) bargaining - anger - denial - acceptance - depression.

b) anger - denial - depression - bargaining - acceptance.

c) bargaining - anger - denial - depression - acceptance.

d) denial - anger - bargaining - depression - acceptance.

e) depression - anger - bargaining - denial - acceptance.

The correct answer is D. Although there are individual differences, the MOST common order of occurrence of Kubler-Ross's stages of death and dying is denial - anger - bargaining - depression - acceptance.

According to Freud, libido is

a) a part of the phallic stage of development.

b) the sex drive.

c) the aggressive drive.

d) a basic energy that is directed at satisfying needs.

e) most strongly associated with the ego.

The correct answer is D. According to Freud, libido is a basic energy that is directed at satisfying needs. Although people today use the term to mean "sex drive," Freud's meaning is much broader than just sex.

Retreating toward behavior that usually characterizes a lower level of maturity is called

a) regression.

b) repression.

c) reaction formation.

d) displacement.

e) projection.

The correct answer is A. Regression is a Freudian defense mechanism where the individual under stress retreats to an earlier, safer time in development.

Albert Bandura is MOST CLOSELY associated with

a) humanistic theory.

b) neopsychoanalytic thinking.

c) radical behaviorism.

d) Gestalt theory.

e) social cognitive theory.

The correct answer is E. Bandura expanded upon behaviorist principles to include the role of cognitive factors in personality. This is called social learning, or social cognitive theory.

A personality theory that describes a person in terms of dominance, sensitivity, extroversion, and the like is a _____ theory.

a) psychoanalytic

b) humanistic

c) learning

d) trait

e) rational emotive

The correct answer is D. Trait theorists assume that personality is made up of different combinations of traits or dispositions.

The Rorschach Test consists of a series of

a) inkblots.

b) photographs.

c) true-false items.

d) essay questions.

e) self-report questions.

The correct answer is A. The Rorschach test is a projective test that is comprised of inkblots.

Hans Selye's term "general adaptation syndrome" refers to

a) the degree to which psychological hardiness provides a buffer against stress.

b) the body's psychological response to stress.

c) a similar, physiological reaction to stress regardless of source.

d) a series of defense mechanisms used by the mind to resist stress.

e) the genetic factors that determine an individual's predisposition to stress.

The correct answer is C. According to Selye, in response to stress, the body goes through the stages of alarm, resistance and exhaustion.

Which of the following statements is true of somatoform disorders?

a) They are a form of hypochondriasis.

b) They are believed to be of two primary types, ulcers and heart disease.

c) They are physical disorders in which emotions are believed to play a central role.

d) They are disorders that are entirely psychological with no involvement of bodily processes.

e) There is no physical basis for these disorders, and persons suffering from them do not generally require medical attention.

The correct answer is C. Somatoform disorders are also called conversion disorders or hysteria because psychological factors are converted to physical symptoms. Examples include "glove anesthesia" and hysterical blindness.

Which of the following combinations is related to optimism and happiness?

a) self-esteem, enthusiasm, personal control

b) personal control, extroversion, self-efficacy

c) self-efficacy, personal control, and self-actualization

d) extroversion, self-actualization, personal control

e) self-esteem, personal control, extroversion

The correct answer is E. Self-esteem, personal control, and extroversion are factors that researchers have found to be related to optimism and happiness.

Bipolar disorder has been referred to as

a) manic-depressive illness.

b) double depression.

c) schizophrenia.

d) histrionic depression.

e) anti-social personality disorder.

The correct answer is A. Bipolar disorder is characterized by periods of mania alternating with periods of depression.

The eating disorder characterized by dramatic reduction in eating and loss of weight, as well as continual efforts to lose even more weight, is known as

a) obsessive consumption disorder.

b) anorexia nervosa.

c) bulimia.

d) neurotic eating disorder.

e) the disorganized eating syndrome.

The correct answer is B. Anorexia nervosa is characterized by dramatic weight loss and by reduction in eating.

Alice feels vaguely uneasy and tense much of the time, but she is unable to pinpoint the cause of her feelings of apprehension. Alice is suffering from

a) phobic disorder.

b) histrionic personality disorder.

c) obsessive-compulsive disorder.

d) generalized anxiety disorder.

e) panic disorder.

The correct answer is D. Anxiety with no identifiable cause is called generalized anxiety disorder. By contrast, phobias involve a fear of some specific, identifiable object.

Matt has an extreme fear of being caught in a thunderstorm and is constantly anxious whenever there are clouds in the sky. Matt's intense, irrational fear is an example of a(n)

a) panic disorder.

b) generalized anxiety disorder.

c) dysthymic disorder

d) phobic disorder.

e) affective disorder.

The correct answer is D. A phobia is an irrational fear of an object or situation. Matt is afraid of a specific, identifiable event.

When repressed impulses reach a client's consciousness, the client is likely to show

a) resistance.

b) transference.

c) extinction.

d) aversion.

e) aggression

The correct answer is A. Defense mechanisms such as repression are used by the ego to protect against feelings of anxiety resulting from unacceptable impulses. When repressed impulses come to the surface during therapy, the client may become resistant to the therapy that unleashed them.

Person-centered therapy most emphasizes

a) re-organizing disordered thought processes.

b) warmth and acceptance by the therapist.

c) reinforcing desirable behavior.

d) gaining insight into the causes of one's disturbances.

e) a cognitive, problem-solving approach.

The correct answer is B. Person-centered therapists believe that humans have an innate drive toward self-actualization that is likely to be achieved in a warm, accepting, and supportive environment.

Behavior therapists generally give strong emphasis to

a) changing the person's reinforcement history.

b) identifying faulty thought patterns.

c) uncovering unconscious conflicts.

d) free will and personal responsibility.

e) self-acceptance and acceptance of others.

The correct answer is A. Behavior therapists believe that behavior is maintained because of rewards and punishments in the person's past learning. By changing the reinforcements, one can change the behavior.

Tom tells his therapist that he believes his compulsive gambling is a symptom of his unconscious hostility toward his family. His therapist, however, says "No, Tom, your problem isn't unconscious hostility; your problem is gambling." Tom's therapist is probably a

a) Gestalt therapist.

b) person-centered therapist.

c) reconstructive therapist.

d) behavior therapist.

e) psychoanalyst.

The correct answer is D. According to behavior therapists, the symptom IS the problem; it is not necessary to delve into cognitive factors.

A basic assumption underlying cognitive approaches to therapy is that

a) positive reinforcement is more effective than punishment in controlling abnormal behavior.

b) praise and social approval serve as effective reinforcers.

c) people are innately positive and strive toward self-improvement.

d) tokens that can later be traded for candy or privileges serve as effective reinforcers.

e) abnormal behavior results from what and how the client thinks.

The correct answer is E. Cognition deals with thoughts. The main goal of cognitive therapists is to help the person identify and change irrational thought patterns that produce atypical behaviors.

An ineffective substance (one with no effect on body mechanisms) is sometimes given to patients participating in studies on the therapeutic effectiveness of drugs. This ineffective substance given to control-condition subjects is called a(n)

a) placebo.

b) positive control substance.

c) inert control.

d) precursor.

e) teratogen.

The correct answer is A. Placebos are given to control group participants in order to determine whether participants' expectations have unintentionally influenced the experimental results.

Antidepressant drugs are thought to work by

a) being acetylcholine agonists.

b) increasing the brain's supply of norepinephrine and serotonin.

c) decreasing the effects of dopamine on nerve synapses.

d) stimulating the pituitary gland.

e) altering the cognitions of the depressed patient.

The correct answer is B. Anti-depressants such as Prozac and Paxil are called SSRIs (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors.)

Compared with the number of people with schizophrenia and manic-depressive psychosis living in public mental health hospitals, the number living in public shelters and on the street is

a) much greater.

b) about the same.

c) much fewer.

d) unknown.

e) currently decreasing.

The correct answer is A. Modern anti-psychotic drugs allowed many people to be deinstitutionalized. Unfortunately, many of them became "street people" because they were unable or unwilling to continue to take their medication.

In Festinger and Carlsmith's experiment on cognitive dissonance, the subjects who reported the greatest enjoyment of the boring task were the ones who

a) were of low intelligence.

b) were paid $20.00.

c) were paid $1.00.

d) were ordered to comply.

e) performed the task with a group of people.

The correct answer is C. The $1.00 participants were unable to make an external attribution for their participation (I got paid a lot) and therefore made an internal attribution instead (I must like it).

In psychological terms, attribution is the

a) analysis one does of the costs and benefits of a study before conducting it.

b) tendency to view all members of a particular group as being relatively the same.

c) beliefs, feelings, and typical behaviors a person displays toward a particular object.

d) explanation of a particular behavior.

e) debriefing provided to a subject after an experiment is concluded.

The correct answer is D. An attribution is an attempt, either internally or externally-based, to explain behavior.

If you fail an exam, a dispositional attribution of your failure would be

a) "I could have done better if I hadn't had a cold."

b) "The professor didn't explain the material very well."

c) "I had to work the night before the exam."

d) "I've never taken examinations as seriously as I should."

e) "My roommate distracted me while I was trying to study."

The correct answer is D. Attributions can be either internal (dispositional) or external (situational). All of the choices except (

d) are attributions about the situation. (

d) is an attribution about the person.

Solomon Asch performed an experiment in which a group of people judged the length of lines, but only one person in the group was an actual subject. He was studying

a) conformity.

b) obedience.

c) cognitive dissonance.

d) group conflict.

e) prejudice.

The correct answer is A. Conformity involves changing in order to fit in. In Asch's experiment, the participant was not required or instructed to change his estimate (obedienc

e).

Which of the following compliance techniques starts with a large request followed by a small request?

a) foot-in-the-door

b) door-in-the-face

c) lowballing

d) social comparison

e) social facilitation

The correct answer is B. The door-in-the-face technique of persuasion begins by making a large request that is likely to be rejected followed by a smaller request which will seem more acceptable by comparison.

The main reason why group think occurs is that people want to be

a) secure

b) right.

c) in agreement.

d) unique.

e) superior.

The correct answer is C. In group think, critical decision-making is sacrificed in favor of maintaining group harmony.

Who conducted the mock prison experiment?

a) Asch

b) Milgram

c) Zimbardo

d) Zajonc

e) Sherif

The correct answer is C. Phillip Zimbardo's Stanford prison experiment investigated the effect of role-playing on attitudes and behaviors.

Friendship that develops because people live near to each other is based on

a) proximity.

b) similarity.

c) familiarity.

d) attractiveness.

e) reinforcement.

The correct answer is A. Proximity means "close to."

Correlation is a technique that

a) measures personality.

b) compares groups of scores.

c) focuses on individuals.

d) allows us to determine cause and effect.

e) provides proof of the existence of a trait.

The correct answer is B. Average scores of two variables are compared to determine whether they rise and fall together. Correlation is always at the level of the group, never the individual. Cause and effect cannot be determined from correlational data.

Cause and effect can BEST be determined through the

a) correlational method.

b) direct observation.

c) experimental method.

d) case history method.

e) questionnaire technique.

The correct answer is C. In an experiment, one variable at a time is manipulated while all other variables are held constant. This is done in order to ensure that any results are due only to the variable being manipulated.