1/106
Looks like no tags are added yet.
Name | Mastery | Learn | Test | Matching | Spaced |
---|
No study sessions yet.
The mRNA is read by the ribosome in a process called
translation
Which of these is the strongest molecular interaction in double-stranded DNA molecules?
hydrogen bonds between complementary bases
A glycerol with three fatty acids attached is referred to as a
fat
How can a single RNA transcript be translated into different polypeptides?
There is more than one way to splice an RNA transcript.
These secondary and tertiary structure of a protein and it's shape can be disrupted by heat causing the protein to be
denatured
protein function is dependent on its
shape
name of gene that causes cancer
oncogene
What is the first level of control of eukaryotic gene transcription?
DNA packing and unpacking
nuclei acids are polymers of ____ monomers
nucleotide
What is a difference between embryonic and adult stem cells?
What is a difference between embryonic and adult stem cells?
Which of the following contribute towards the tertiary structure of a protein?
-hydrophobic interactions
-acidic and basic interactions
-hydrophilic interactions
-amino acids side chains or R group
Cells communicate with one another via
signal transduction pathways
What is the name given to the reaction that breaks peptide bonds?
hydrolysis
What name is given to the specific location of a gene on a chromosome?
locus
The primary structure of a protein is determined by the gene corresponding to the protein. A specific sequence of nucleotides in DNA is converted into mRNA in a process called:
transcription
A specific stretch of DNA that programs the amino acid sequence of a polypeptide is a
gene
Destruction of a protein's shape is called
denaturation
The primary structure of a protein refers to the sequence of __ in the polypeptide chain
amino acids
The secondary structure refers to highly regular local sub-structures on the actual polypeptide backbone chain. Two main types of secondary structure are called alpha helices and beta-pleated sheets. These are formed because of the sequence of amino acids in the primary structure.
true
Proteins are polymers constructed from ______ monomers.
amino acid
The chromosomes of eukaryotic cells are found in the
nucleus
What name is given to the following reaction? glycerol + 3 fatty acids -> triglyceride + 3 water molecules
dehydration reaction
How does RNA differ from DNA?
RNA contains uracil; DNA contains thymine.
The primary structure of a protein is held together by __ that are covelant.
peptide bonds
At one point, you were just an undifferentiated, single cell. You are now made of many cells; some of these cells function as liver cells, some as muscle cells, some as red blood cells, while others play different roles. What name is given to the process that is responsible for this?
cellular differentiation
Homologous chromosomes
carry genes controlling the same inherited characteristics
Microscopes facts:
-may have ocular lenses that you look through
-may have a condenser with iris diaphragm to control light
-may have a stage for the specimen to be viewed
-may be compound with two or more lenses in sequence
-may have more than one magnification level
Bacteria are categorized under the microscope by the following shapes:
-rods or bacilli
-cocci or spheres
-spirochaetes or corkscrews
Peptidoglycan in the cell wall of a bacterial cell is determined by
gram stain
A disadvantage of using bacterial cells to grow proteins is that
they do not correctly fold all proteins
Aseptic technique is important because:
• it is used in gene cloning
• is used for manipulating bacteria
• includes keeping a clean workspace to decrease possible contamination
• it keeps unwanted bacteria out of your experiment
Compound microscopes:
do not have two or more lens in sequence
An advantage of using bacterial cells to express proteins is that
they are well understood
Rod-shaped bacteria such as Escherichia coli are called __ based in the shape of the cells
bacilli
A streaking method for plating bacteria onto an agar surface
is tew unique for creating clones of single bacteria
If you are looking at a specimen on a compound microscope, what would be the total magnification given the following information? Ocular lens magnification 10X
Objective lens magnification 40X
400x
The annealing temperature may vary depending on the composition of the primers
true
The optimum temperature for the enzyme TAQ is 72 degrees C.
true
DNA polymerase
synthesizes DNA
The positive control PCR tube tells the researcher that the PC reaction and sequencing reactions will give correct results.
true
What is the template of the PCR reaction?
DNA
If there is amplified DNA in the negative control (water tube) that has no template DNA. you cannot trust the data.
true
The master mix has buffer, magneslum (required for DNA polymerase activity), nucleotides and TAQ polymerase.
true
Which of the following techniques is the best choice for amplifying DNA?
PCR
The melting or denaturation step is for the TAQ polymerase to bind.
False
The melting or denaturation step is for the TAQ polymerase to bind.
False
Which cell type adapts to make antibodies?
B Cell
A chromogenic substrate is one that starts out clear and turns a color like blue in the presence of an enzyme.
true
Transformation is not used in Genetic Engineering
false
Antibodies are Y shaped proteins and bivalent (have two binding sites)
true
which of these is not a pathogen
antibody
An antibody from another species cannot be antigenic.
false
a vaccine works by
stimulating the immune system to develop lasting defenses
which of these can be antigens
-vaccine
- a foreign substance like pollen
- any foreign protein
- antibodies from another species
ELISA assays
are a laboratory technique that uses antibodies linked to enzymes to detect and measure the amount of a substance in a sample, such as serum
Which of these is correct about agarose gel electrophoresis:
• DNA samples are added to a well or hole in the gel
• The agarose gel contains microscopic pores which act as a molecular sieve
• It is useful for determining the size in base pairs of fragments of DNA
Which of these about the human Genome is correct?
• The human genome has approximately 20,000 protein-coding genes
• Approximately 1.5% of the genome is protein-coding genes
• Human DNA is about 3.2 billion bases long
During gel electrophoresis, four DNA fragments of 800 base pairs (bp), 550 bp, 2200 bp and 1230 bp are being separated following restriction digest of a plasmid. Put the DNA fragments in order from smallest to greatest distance migrated from the wells. Which of these statements about the results is incorrect.
The 800 bp piece will be between the 550 bp pices and the 1230 bp piece
What is the phenotype of person who has sickle cell anemla/disease?
sickle cell anemia
DNA is stable when dried out or dessicated but could be destroyed by nucleases.
True
The DNA point mutation in HbS causes a change in the amino acid composition of the hemoglobin.
True
A child cannot get sickle cell disease if one parent is NOT a carrier for the disease?
True
The Human Genome Project has the potential to
-increase our understanding of the historical relationships among species
-lead to treatments for contagious diseases
-lead to treatments for inherited diseases
Gel electrophoresis can be used in the process of genetic engineering to:
-Verify the Size of the DNA fragment that you are planning to insert into cells
-Connect DNA fragments together
The charge of DNA is ______________ due to the phosphate group.
negative
DNA techniques in biotechnology include:
-DNA SEQUENCING
-GENE THERAPY
-GENE CLONING
-PCR
What is the genotype of person who has sickle cell anemia/disease?
HbS HbS
The point mutation in DNA that causes a gene to go from normal hemoglobin to sickle cell hemoglobin is a T replaced by an A.
False
Approximately what percentage of the human genome consists of noncoding DNA?
98%
Which of these is correct about agarose gel electrophoresis?
-The agarose gel contains microscopic pores which act as a molecular sieve
-Smaller DNA molecules migrate farther in the agarose gel than larger molecules than larger molecules
You are attempting to link an individual to a crime. The only evidence you have is a tiny drop of blood. How can you use this drop of blood to make the association?
You can use PCR to increase the amount of DNA available for restriction fragment analysis.
Which of the following is the best definition for recombinant DNA?
DNA that includes pieces from two different sources
Which of these statements is correct about Restriction Enzymes (also known as Restriction Endonucleases)?
-ASE in the name tells you it's an enzyme
-They are catalysts made of proteins
When plasmids are used to produce a desired protein, the
desired gene is inserted into the plasmid and the plasmid is taken up by the bacterium
Of these steps, which one occurs earliest in the process of producing recombinant DNA?
The same restriction enzyme is used to isolate the gene of interest and to cut the plasmid DNA.
A DNA fragment with a sticky end that reads -ATTCG will bind with another DNA fragment with a sticky end that reads
TAAGC
"Sticky ends" are
single-stranded ends of fragments of double-stranded DNA
The process of making multiple copies of a gene by inserting it into a host genome and culturing the host is an example of
gene cloning
The pattern derived from restriction fragment analysis can tell you about a plasmid, about genetic mutations and diseases such as sickle cell disease?
False
Of the following, which is the last step in the production of a recombinant DNA plasmid?
allowing the reproduction of the bacterium bearing the recombinant plasmid
A plasmid is an extrachromosomal element composed of amino acids.
False
Which of these questions is NOT true about restriction enzymes?
They do not require specific conditions for activity
Which of these is a genetically modified organism?
an organism carrying a gene that was acquired by artificial means
Sticky ends in DNA means that the ends can link together by:
complementary base pairing and hydrogen bonding
Of these steps, which occurs first in the production of a recombinant plasmid?
isolation of a plasmid from a bacterium
Genetic engineering of bacterial cells that result in a protein of interest (RFP, insulin etc) occurs by which of the following processes:
The gene of interest is inserted into a bacterial cell that complete transcription and translation on that gene
Enzymes are biological catalysts that speed up reactions without being consumed in the reaction. They are temperature pH sensitive.
True
Restriction enzymes are used in gene cloning.
True
In a protein assay, a standard curve:
provides a reference information for an unknown protein measurement
The concentration of an unknown protein solution is usually compared with a standard curve with y-axis o absorbance (optical density) and -axis is protein concentration.
True
The BCA Assay:
-can be read in a spectrophotometer
-is sensitive
-uses a standard curve
A spectrophotometer
-can be set at a specific wavelength
-has a light source
-measures color intensity
-uses a cuvette or special tube
Colorimetric Protein Assays:
use a dye to bind with protein and can measure the concentration of a protein in solution directly
Which of these is NOT a control plate in the transformation experiment?
LB/amp/ara with P+
Which of these is elements on the pARA-R plasmid is not required for the transformed E.coli to grow on ampicillin containing medium?
-PBAD and ARA-C gene
-restriction enzyme sites
-rfp gene
In the heat shock step of transformation, competent cells are heated to cause uptake of plasmid. What is the heat shock temperature?
42C
How is it possible for a human gene to be expressed in a bacterial cell?
-Bacterial Cells can transcribe and translate genes from other species
-all cells perform transcription and translation
-all living things use the same genetic code
-eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells use the information in DNA to produce proteins in very similar ways
In transformation, cells are treated with Cal (calcium chloride) to make the cells competent to take up foreign DNA.
True
A plasmid
small, circular piece of DNA located in the cytoplasm of bacteria
In heat shock. E. coli cells are placed on ice, then incubated briefly at 42 C and put back on ice to force the plasmid through the adhesion zones and into the bacteria.
False