Lecture 17: Diseases of Immunity

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74 Terms

1
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what is the focus of pathology of the immune system?

diseases that are the result of inadequate or inappropriate immune responses

2
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what are the recognition molecules in innate immunity?

PAMPS, PRRs, DAMPS

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what are PAMPs?

pathogen associated molecular patterns on infectious organisms

4
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what are PRRs?

pattern recognition receptors expressed by host cells

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what are DAMPs?

danger/damage associated molecular patterns → endogenous molecules released with cell damage or inflammation

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what is innate immunity?

a group of non-specific first line defense mechanisms that occur immediately or within a very short time frame following exposure to antigens

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which type of immunity does not have memory?

innate

8
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what cells have PRRs?

endothelial cells, phagocytic cells, and ILCs

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what will cells do when they have PRRs?

recognize and respond to PAMPs and other cell surface molecules on microbes

10
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what is adaptive immunity?

occurs days to weeks after exposure to microbial antigens during the innate immune response at barrier systems provided by skin or mucosae

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how is the adaptive immune response different from innate?

adaptive is highly specific to antigens that induce them, and the response is remembered

12
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adaptive immune responses must be

against molecules that are foreign to the animal and not against structural and/or functional molecules of the animal itself

13
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what can the adaptive immune system do through the MHC system?

distinguish foreign molecules from self-molecules

14
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the defenses and mechanisms of adaptive immunity include

  • cell-mediated immunity mediated by T lymphocytes against intracellular pathogens

  • humoral immunity mediated by B lymphocytes against extracellular pathogens and toxins

15
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what are the cells of immunity?

T lymphocytes, B lymphocytes, dendritic cells, and natural killer cells

16
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where do T lymphocytes originate and migrate to?

originate in bone marrow and migrate to thymus

17
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when can T lymphocytes recognize antigens?

only after it has been processed into peptide fragments and associated with MHC molecules

18
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where is the antigen associated with the MHC in most instances?

on the surface of an antigen-presenting cell, a virally infected cell, a neoplastic cell, or a cell of a foreign tissue graft

19
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what do TH1 lymphocytes do?

synthesize and secrete IL-2 and IFN-gamma, stimulating CTL and macrophages, and induce a cell-mediated immune response

20
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what do TH2 lymphocytes do?

synthesize and secrete IL-4, IL-5, IL-6, and IL-13 which stimulates B lymphocytes to develop into antibody-secreting plasma cells and inhibit macrophage functions, and induce an antibody response

21
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what type of T lymphocyte responses would occur during a protozoal infection?

  • TH1: elimination of organism and survival of host

  • TH2: rapid proliferation of the organism and death of the host

22
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what would happen during a TH2 response to an allergen?

elaboration of IgE through IL-4 and stimulation of eosinophils through IL-5, and the development of an allergic reaction

23
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what is a functionally distinct subpopulation of CD4+ T lymphocytes?

regulatory T lymphocyte (Treg)

24
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what is the function of Tregs?

suppress the response of self-reactive CD4 lymphocytes that have escaped the negative selection process in the thymus

25
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what are the 2 phases of B lymphocyte development?

antigen-independent phase in the primary lymphoid tissues followed by an antigen-dependent phase in secondary lymphoid tissues

26
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what is the antigen receptor of the B lymphocyte?

membrane-bound immunoglobulin

27
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what signifies a mature B lymphocyte?

when B lymphocytes express IgM and IgD on their surface

28
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in the antigen-dependent phase, antigen-activated mature B lymphocytes differentiate into

IgM-secreting plasma cells or switch to another antibody isotype

29
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an evaluation of the rearranged genes of a B lymphocyte can be used to

molecularly phenotype B lymphocyte neoplasms

30
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which lymphocytes can recognize soluble antigens?

B lymphocytes

31
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a failure to express CD40 ligand has been associated with

an inability to isotype switch, resulting in a hyper-IgM syndrome

32
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mononuclear phagocytic cells include

circulating monocytes and tissue-based macrophages

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what is one primary function of macrophages?

phagocytosis

34
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what are the cell types that normally express MHC class II molecules?

macrophages, dendritic cells, and B lymphocytes

35
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what cells will only express MHC class II on activation?

macrophages

36
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what is the most important antigen-presenting cell for initiating primary immune responses to protein antigens?

antigen-presenting dendritic cells

37
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what cells are non-specific cytotoxic cells that are important in early responses to tumor cells and viral infections?

NK cells

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how are NK cells different from cytotoxic lymphocytes?

they are not MHC restricted, are constitutively cytolytic, and do not develop memory cells

39
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true or false: NK cells are the cytotoxic cell of innate immunity.

true

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what does the MHC distinguish?

self from non-self

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what requirement is the basis for MHC restriction?

that most T lymphocytes only recognize fragments of antigen when they are bound to MHC molecules

42
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where are MHC class 1 molecules present?

on all nucleated cells

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what is the major function of MHC class 1 molecules?

the presentation of peptide fragments of antigens to CTL (CD8+)

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where are MHC class II molecules present?

on antigen-presenting cells (B lymphocytes, dendritic cells, and macrophages)

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what is the main function of MHC class II molecules?

the induction of TH lymphocytes

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what are MHC molecules important in?

regulating T lymphocyte development in the thymus in the peripheral lymphoid tissues

47
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what does the MHC influence?

  • transplant acceptance or rejection

  • immune responsiveness

  • the pathogenesis of many diseases

48
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what are hypersensitivity reactions?

inappropriate or misdirected responses to a specific antigen that results in harmful reactions upon exposure of a sensitized host to that specific antigen

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what do animals require for hypersensitivity reactions?

a sensitization phase

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where do harmful effects of hypersensitivity reactions occur?

in the effector phase

51
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type 1 hypersensitivities are also known as

immediate-type hypersensitivity

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type 1 hypersensitivities are most often the result of what?

an IgE response directed against environmental or exogenous antigens causing the release of vasoactive mediators

53
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type 1 hypersensitivity reactions are most commonly the result of

an IgE-mediated immune response directed against environmental and parasite antigens

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what is a type 1 hypersensitivity?

an allergic reaction that occurs within minutes of exposure to an antigen to which the host has been previously sensitized

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sensitization phase of of type 1 hypersensitivities

occurs during the initial exposure to an antigen when the host develops an antigen-specific IgE response

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the effector phase of type 1 hypersensitivities can be

  • limited to an acute inflammatory reaction, resulting from the release of mast cell mediators

  • can progress to a late-phase reaction

  • or a chronic reaction

57
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where do mast cells reside?

in vascularized tissue

58
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mast cells can be activated by

  • cytokines (IL-8)

  • complement products (C3a and C5a)

  • drugs (nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs, codeine, and morphine)

  • physical stimuli

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non-IgE mediated activation of mast cells is referred to as

anaphylactoid reaction

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IgE-mediated activation is referred to as

type 1 hypersensitivity

61
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the immediate response of type 1 hypersensitivities is characterized by

  • increased blood flow

  • increased vascular permeability (edema)

  • smooth muscle spasm

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what is recruited to the sites of type 1 hypersensitivity reactions?

eosinophils are recruited by chemokines

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what are the 3 types of responses that can result from type 1 hypersensivities?

  • an acute inflammatory response

  • a late-phase response

  • a chronic inflammatory response

64
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what is the genetic predisposition to develop localized type 1 hypersensitivity reactions to innocuous antigens?

atopy

65
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what happens in atopic dermatitis?

the lesion may progress to a late-phase response or chronic inflammation characterized by more intense inflammatory infiltrates or to a type IV hypersensitivity reaction

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what does anaphylaxis refer to?

an acute systemic hypersensitivity to an antigen that is mediated by IgE and involves mast cell activation resulting in a shocklike state

67
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systemic anaphylactic reactions often correlate to what?

the primary shock organ

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what is the primary target tissues of anaphylactic reactions?

blood vessels and smooth muscle

69
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there are no pathognomonic lesions of anaphylaxis other than

in cases with upper airway edema or pulmonary hyperinflation

70
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what is the major shock organ in dogs?

the liver

71
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what are the most common types of antigens that can elicit a systemic anaphylactic reaction?

drugs, vaccines, venom of stinging insects, and heterologous sera

72
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localized type 1 hypersensitivity reactions are restricted to

a specific tissue or organ

73
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what is a cutaneous manifestation of a type 1 hypersensitivity reaction that results in inflammation of the skin?

allergic dermatitis

74
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dietary type 1 hypersensitivity reactions in the dog and cat more commonly present as

cutaneous disease