mis 170 ch 4.3-4.8

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87 Terms

1
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What is a Man-In-The-Middle (MITM) attack?

An attack where an attacker eavesdrops on or modifies communications between two parties who believe they are communicating directly with each other.

2
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At which OSI layer does a MITM attack operate?

Network layer (Layer 3).

3
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In a MITM attack, what is the attacker’s goal?

To intercept, alter, or impersonate communications between two parties.

4
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What type of channel prevents a MITM attack?

A secure channel — ensures both data authenticity and confidentiality.

5
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What is a secure channel?

A communication channel that guarantees data authenticity and confidentiality.

6
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Is DNS poisoning a type of MITM attack?

Yes — It modifies DNS queries to redirect users and intercept their communications.

7
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An attacker that only eavesdrops on communications is conducting what kind of attack?
A) Not an MITM attack
B) An MITM attack

B) An MITM attack — Eavesdropping alone qualifies as an MITM behavior.

8
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To prevent MITM attacks, both ____ and _____ must be guaranteed.

Data authenticity and data confidentiality — preventing tampering and unauthorized access.

9
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An ARP poisoning attack that associates an attacker’s MAC address with a target host’s IP address is an example of what?

A Man-In-The-Middle (MITM) attack — It allows eavesdropping and interception of data between devices.

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What is a Man-In-The-Browser (MITB) attack?

A type of MITM attack that uses malware within a web browser to intercept or modify communications between a browser and a web server.

11
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At which OSI layer does an MITB attack operate?

Application layer (Layer 7).

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What is the primary goal of a Man-In-The-Browser (MITB) attack?

To intercept or alter data exchanged between a user’s browser and a web server, often to steal financial or sensitive information.

13
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How does malware typically execute an MITB attack?

By exploiting browser vulnerabilities through Trojan-infected extensions or user scripts that alter form inputs and webpage data.

14
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Why is an MITB attack difficult to detect or remove?

Because the malware is embedded in browser extensions that may appear legitimate and only activate on specific websites.

15
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In an MITB attack, what happens first?
A) The attacker eavesdrops on a network channel
B) The target host is infected with malware

B) The target host is infected with malware — It enables the attacker to capture browser data.

16
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An attacker eavesdropping on a wireless network between a user and a web server is conducting what kind of attack?
A) MITB
B) MITM

B) MITM — MITB occurs within the browser, not over a wireless channel.

17
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Is an MITB attack limited only to banking websites?
A) True
B) False

B) False — It can target any website that processes user data, not just financial ones.

18
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What allows an MITB attacker to alter a user’s input before submission?

A compromised browser extension or injected script that modifies HTML form data.

19
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What kind of protection helps mitigate MITB attacks?

Using up-to-date browsers, disabling untrusted extensions, employing antivirus and behavioral monitoring software.

20
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Why is the MITB attack considered a type of MITM attack?

Because it intercepts and manipulates data between two communicating parties (browser and web server).

21
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What is SSH (Secure Shell Protocol)?

A cryptographic network protocol that provides a secure channel for operating network services over an insecure network.

22
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What was SSH designed to replace?

Telnet and other unsecured remote shell protocols that transmit information (including passwords) in plaintext.

23
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Which port does SSH use by default?
A) TCP port 80
B) TCP port 49
C) TCP port 22

C) TCP port 22 — SSH uses TCP port 22 for secure communication.

24
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How does SSH provide data confidentiality?
A) By using encryption
B) By using message authentication codes
C) By using digital signatures

A) By using encryption — Encryption ensures that transmitted data remains confidential.

25
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How does SSH provide data integrity?
A) By using encryption
B) By using message authentication codes
C) By using digital signatures

B) By using message authentication codes — MACs verify that data is not altered in transit.

26
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How does an SSH server authenticate a user?
A) SSH cannot be used for authentication
B) By using a user's public key to decrypt a random message that the user encrypted with their private key
C) By using a user's private key to decrypt a random message that the user encrypted with their private key

B) The SSH server verifies the user by decrypting a message with the user’s public key that was encrypted using their private key.

27
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What is protocol tunneling in SSH?

Encapsulation of one protocol’s packets within another, allowing any network service to be secured over SSH.

28
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What are the main security features provided by SSH?

Data confidentiality (encryption), data integrity (MACs), and secure authentication (public/private key).

29
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What is public key authentication in SSH?

A method of authenticating users without passwords by using a key pair — the private key is used by the user, and the public key is stored on the server.

30
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What benefit does SSH provide for automation and single sign-on (SSO)?

It enables passwordless logins using public key authentication, allowing secure automated access.

31
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What is FTPS?

File Transfer Protocol Secure — an extension of FTP that uses SSL/TLS to secure data transmission.

32
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What is SFTP?

SSH File Transfer Protocol — an extension of SSH that provides secure file transfer and remote file system management.

33
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Which protocol uses SSL/TLS?
A) FTP
B) FTPS
C) SFTP

B) FTPS — It uses SSL/TLS to secure communications between hosts.

34
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Which protocol uses TCP port 22?
A) FTP
B) FTPS
C) SFTP

C) SFTP — It’s built on SSH and uses TCP port 22 for secure transfers.

35
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Which protocol uses TCP ports 989 and 990?
A) FTP
B) FTPS
C) SFTP

B) FTPS — TCP port 989 is the data channel, and 990 is the control channel.

36
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Which protocol provides remote file system management functionality?
A) FTP
B) FTPS
C) SFTP

C) SFTP — It allows directory listing, deletion, and resuming interrupted transfers.

37
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Are FTPS and SFTP compatible with each other?

No — FTPS uses SSL/TLS while SFTP uses SSH

38
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What encryption and hashing algorithms are supported by FTPS?

AES and 3DES for encryption

39
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What types of certificates does FTPS support?

X.509 self-signed or trusted public key certificates for authentication.

40
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What ports does traditional FTP use?

TCP port 20 (data channel) and TCP port 21 (control channel).

41
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What is the main difference between FTPS and SFTP?

FTPS secures FTP using SSL/TLS, while SFTP is built on SSH and uses SSH protocol extensions for security.

42
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What is one advantage of using SFTP over FTP?

SFTP provides both encryption and authentication via SSH, ensuring secure file transfer and system management.

43
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What is the main purpose of using FTPS or SFTP?

To securely transfer files between networked hosts while ensuring data confidentiality and integrity.

44
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What is IPSec?

A protocol suite for securing data communications over an IP network that ensures authenticity, integrity, and confidentiality at the network layer (Layer 3).

45
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What are the two main IPSec protocols?

Authentication Header (AH) and Encapsulating Security Protocol (ESP).

46
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What does the Authentication Header (AH) provide?

Authentication and integrity for an IP packet, and protection against replay attacks.

47
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What does the Encapsulating Security Protocol (ESP) provide?

Authentication, integrity, confidentiality (encryption), and protection against replay attacks.

48
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How does AH ensure data integrity?

By using a message digest created with a shared secret key.

49
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How does AH protect against replay attacks?

By including a sequence number in the AH header to detect duplicate packets.

50
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What part of an IP packet does AH authenticate?

The entire IP packet — both the IP header and IP payload.

51
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What part of an IP packet does ESP authenticate?

Only the IP payload.

52
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Which IPSec protocol provides protection against replay attacks?
A) AH
B) ESP
C) AH and ESP

C) AH and ESP — Both use sequence numbers for replay protection.

53
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Which IPSec protocol provides data confidentiality?
A) AH
B) ESP
C) AH and ESP

B) ESP — It uses encryption to provide confidentiality.

54
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Which IPSec protocol provides authentication and integrity?
A) AH
B) ESP
C) AH and ESP

C) AH and ESP — Both ensure authentication and integrity of IP packets.

55
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Which IPSec protocol authenticates an entire IP packet?
A) AH
B) ESP
C) AH and ESP

A) AH — Authenticates both the IP header and payload.

56
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Which IPSec protocol only authenticates the IP payload?
A) AH
B) ESP
C) AH and ESP

B) ESP — Only authenticates the payload, not the IP header.

57
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What are the two IPSec operation modes?

Transport mode and Tunnel mode.

58
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What is transport mode in IPSec?

A mode where only the IP payload is authenticated and encrypted, not the IP header. Used for end-to-end communication between a client and server.

59
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What is tunnel mode in IPSec?

A mode where the entire IP packet (header and payload) is authenticated, encrypted, and encapsulated within another protocol, commonly L2TP.

60
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In which IPSec mode is the IP header not authenticated?
A) Transport
B) Tunnel
C) Both

A) Transport — Only the payload is protected.

61
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In which IPSec mode is an entire IP packet encapsulated in another protocol?
A) Transport
B) Tunnel
C) Both

B) Tunnel — The entire packet is encapsulated for transmission.

62
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In which IPSec mode is the IP payload encrypted?
A) Transport
B) Tunnel
C) Both

C) Both — The payload is encrypted in both IPSec modes.

63
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Which IPSec mode is used for communications between a server and a client?
A) Transport
B) Tunnel
C) Both

A) Transport — Used for end-to-end communications.

64
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Which IPSec mode is used for communications between two gateways?
A) Transport
B) Tunnel
C) Both

B) Tunnel — Commonly used between network gateways or VPN endpoints.

65
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In which IPSec mode is the IP payload authenticated?
A) Transport
B) Tunnel
C) Both

C) Both — The payload is authenticated in both IPSec modes.

66
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What protocol is commonly used to encapsulate IPSec in tunnel mode?

Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP).

67
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At what OSI layer does IPSec operate?

Layer 3 — The network layer.

68
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What are the key security services provided by IPSec?

Authentication, integrity, confidentiality, and replay attack protection.

69
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What is the Post Office Protocol (POP)?

An Internet standard protocol used by an email client to retrieve email from a mail server.

70
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At what OSI layer does POP operate?

Application layer (Layer 7).

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Which version of POP is the latest?

POP3 (Post Office Protocol version 3).

72
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Which port does POP use by default?
A) TCP port 443
B) TCP port 110
C) TCP port 22

B) TCP port 110 — POP uses TCP port 110 for unencrypted communication.

73
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What is the purpose of POP?
A) Send an email
B) Retrieve an email
C) Configure a mail server

B) Retrieve an email — POP downloads emails from the server to the client.

74
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What happens to an email after it’s downloaded via POP by default?

It is removed from the POP server.

75
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Why is POP not secure?

Data, including credentials, is transmitted in cleartext.

76
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What is POPS (POP3S)?

POP Secure — a version of POP that uses SSL/TLS to secure communication between the client and the server.

77
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Which port does POP3S use?
A) TCP port 80
B) UDP port 1812
C) TCP port 995

C) TCP port 995 — POPS uses SSL/TLS over TCP port 995.

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What is the difference between POP and POPS?

POPS uses SSL/TLS to provide data privacy and integrity, while POP transmits data in cleartext.

79
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What is an IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol)?

A protocol that allows an email client to retrieve and manage email directly on a mail server.

80
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At what OSI layer does IMAP operate?

Application layer (Layer 7).

81
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Which port does IMAP use by default?

TCP port 143.

82
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Which port does IMAPS use?

TCP port 993 — IMAPS uses SSL/TLS to secure communications.

83
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Which protocol supports the creation of folders on a mail server?
A) POP
B) IMAP

B) IMAP — IMAP allows organizing emails into folders on the server.

84
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Which protocol is typically used for accessing email from a single device?
A) POP
B) IMAP

A) POP — It downloads emails and removes them from the server by default.

85
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Which protocol supports searching emails on the mail server?
A) POP
B) IMAP

B) IMAP — IMAP can search and organize emails directly on the server.

86
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In which protocol is a retrieved email removed from the server by default?
A) POP
B) IMAP

A) POP — Emails are deleted from the server after being downloaded.

87
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What is IMAPS?

A secure version of IMAP that uses SSL/TLS to provide data privacy and integrity over TCP port 993.