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Vocabulary flashcards covering core concepts, diagnostic terms, and key medical terminology across respiratory, cardiac, renal, immunity, and oncology systems from NURS 3580 Exam 1 Blueprint.
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Upper Airway
The portion of the respiratory tract consisting of the nose, mouth, pharynx, and larynx.
Lower Airway
The portion of the respiratory tract consisting of the trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli, responsible for gas exchange.
Silent Chest
A critical medical emergency in acute asthma where severe airway obstruction leads to an absence of wheezing or breath sounds due to severe reduction in air movement.
Status Asthmaticus
A severe, life-threatening asthma attack unresponsive to standard bronchodilator treatment, leading to severe hypoxia, hypercapnia, and respiratory failure.
Community-Acquired Pneumonia (CAP)
Pneumonia occurring in the community or diagnosed within less than 14 days of admission to a long-term care facility.
Hospital-Acquired Pneumonia (HAP)
Pneumonia occurring ≥48 hours after hospital admission.
Ventilator-Associated Pneumonia (VAP)
Pneumonia occurring ≥48 hours after endotracheal intubation.
Latent TB Infection (LTBI)
A tuberculosis infection where the individual harbors Mycobacterium tuberculosis without symptoms and is not contagious.
Active TB
Symptomatic and contagious stage of tuberculosis infection presenting with persistent cough, night sweats, weight loss, fever, and hemoptysis.
RIPE Therapy
The intensive phase medication regimen for active tuberculosis lasting 2 months, consisting of Rifampin, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide, and Ethambutol.
Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP)
The average pressure in a patient's arteries during one cardiac cycle; a value >65 mmHg is necessary to maintain adequate tissue perfusion.
Stable Angina
Predictable chest pain triggered by exertion and relieved by rest or nitroglycerin, lasting less than 15 minutes.
Unstable Angina
Chest pain that occurs unpredictably at rest, is not relieved by nitroglycerin, and represents a medical emergency.
STEMI
ST-elevation myocardial infarction, indicating complete coronary artery occlusion visible as ST-segment elevation on an ECG.
NSTEMI
Non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction, confirmed by elevated cardiac troponin levels without ST-segment elevation on an ECG.

Grey Turner's Sign
Discoloration or bruising on the flank that indicates severe bleeding in the abdominal cavity or retroperitoneal space.
Intermittent Claudication
Ischemic muscle pain or cramping in the lower extremities brought on by exercise and relieved by rest, characteristic of peripheral artery disease.
Dependent Rubor
A deep reddish-blue color of the legs when placed in a dependent position, indicative of severe peripheral artery disease.
Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR)
A fundamental diagnostic parameter that measures how well the kidneys are filtering waste from the blood.
Serum Creatinine
A metabolic waste product from muscle breakdown that is filtered by healthy kidneys; elevated blood levels indicate impaired kidney filtration.
Creatinine Clearance
A clinical calculation measuring how efficiently the kidneys clear creatinine from the blood, serving as the most accurate measure of GFR.
RAAS System
Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System; a hormone cascade activated by low BP leading to sodium and water retention, increased blood volume, and restored BP.
Glomerulonephritis
Renal glomerular inflammation often occurring post-streptococcal infection, characterized by periorbital edema, hypertension, tea-colored hematuria, proteinuria, and decreased GFR.
Nephrotic Syndrome
A kidney disorder presenting with massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, generalized edema (anasarca), hyperlipidemia, and hypercoagulability.
Prerenal AKI
Acute kidney injury caused by factors that decrease systemic blood circulation and renal blood flow before reaching the kidney tissue.
Intrarenal AKI
Acute kidney injury caused by direct damage to kidney tissue, such as acute tubular necrosis (ATN) or nephrotoxic substances.
Postrenal AKI
Acute kidney injury resulting from mechanical obstruction to urine flow anywhere from the renal pelvis to the urinary meatus.
Peritoneal Dialysis
A daily renal replacement therapy where dialysate is instilled into the peritoneal cavity to filter waste products across the peritoneum before draining.
Hemodialysis
A renal replacement therapy performed 3 times per week where blood is filtered through an external machine for effective waste removal.
AV Fistula
A surgically created connection between an artery and a vein used for hemodialysis access; must be evaluated regularly for a bruit and thrill.
Bruit
An audible swishing sound heard through a stethoscope over a vascular site or AV fistula, indicating blood flow.
Thrill
A palpable vibration felt over a vascular access site such as an AV fistula, indicating blood flow.
Innate Immunity
Non-specific, natural defense mechanisms present at birth that respond immediately to pathogens.
Humoral Immunity
Antibody-mediated immune defense produced by B lymphocytes circulating in bodily fluids.
Cell-Mediated Immunity
An immune response driven primarily by T lymphocytes targeting direct cellular destruction.
Type I Hypersensitivity
An IgE-mediated immediate allergic reaction, such as systemic anaphylaxis or allergic asthma.
Type II Hypersensitivity
A cytotoxic immune reaction involving IgG or IgM antibodies targeting cellular antigens, such as in blood transfusion reactions.
Type III Hypersensitivity
An immune complex-mediated disorder where antigen-antibody complexes deposit in tissues, as seen in SLE and rheumatoid arthritis.
Type IV Hypersensitivity
A delayed cell-mediated hypersensitivity reaction mediated by T cells, such as in contact dermatitis or Mantoux tuberculin skin testing.
TNM System
An anatomical cancer classification system based on primary Tumor size (T), regional lymph Node involvement (N), and distant Metastasis (M).
Vesicant
An intravenous agent that causes tissue destruction, blistering, and severe necrosis if extravasation into surrounding tissue occurs.
Neutropenia
An abnormally low level of neutrophils in the blood, predisposing the patient to life-threatening infection.
Anasarca
Severe, generalized body edema caused by widespread fluid accumulation in extracellular spaces.
What are examples of airway protection mechanisms?
epiglottis closure, cough reflex, mucociliary escalator, reflex bronchoconstriction, filtration through the nasal hairs
What are examples of interventions to promote airway integrity?
turn/cough/deep breath, incentive spirometer, early ambulation, hydration to thin secretions, splinting for pain, chest physiotherapysuctioning, use of bronchodilators, oxygen therapy
What does an oxygenation status of 95-100% indicate?
Normal/good oxygenation
What does an oxygenation status of 90-94% indicate?
mild hypoxia
what does an oxygenation status of 85-90% indicate?
moderate hypoxia
What does an oxygenation status of less thatn 85% indicate?
severe hypoxia- medical emergency
What are the s/s of hypoxia?
restlessness, tachycardia, tachypnea, accessory muscle use,cyanosis, and confusion
What is considered a “late” sign of hypoxia?
cyanosis
What can be a sign of hypoxia in older adults
confusion or changes in mental status.
What is a SABA
short acting bronchodilator used for quick relief of asthma symptoms.
What are examples of SABAs?
albuterol and levalbuterol.
What are LABAs?
Long acting bronchodilators used for asthma maintenance therapy.
What are examples of LABAs?
Salmeterol and formoterol.
What receptors do bronchodilators target?
Bronchodilators primarily target beta-2 adrenergic receptors in the airway smooth muscle, leading to relaxation and dilation of the air passages.
What do steroids do for the respiratory system?
Steroids reduce inflammation in the respiratory system, improving airflow and decreasing mucus production
What would antibiotics be used for in the respiratory system?
Antibiotics are used to treat bacterial infections in the respiratory system, helping to eliminate pathogens and reduce related symptoms.
What are antipyretics used for in the respiratory system?
Antipyretics are used to reduce fever in patients with respiratory infections, helping to alleviate symptoms and improve comfort.
Why would analgesics be used in respiratory pts?
used for pleuritic pain
What are some of the risk factors for developing pneumonia?
age >65, immunocompromised, chronic diseases, immobility, aspiration risk (think decreased LOC), NG tube, recent antibiotic use r/t antibiotic resistance, air pollution, long-term care resident, and prolonged ventilation.
What are the s/s of pneumonia?
cough (productive/non-productive_)
fever
dyspnea
tachypnea
pleuritic chest pain
crackles
hypoxia
confusion (esp. older adults)
sputum- yelllow, green, rust colored
What are the diagnostics used in pneumonia?
chest x-ray: shows consolidation
CBC- shows increased WBC r/t infection
sputum culture- done before antibiotics
Pulse Ox
ABG- severe pneumonia
Blood cultures if septic
What is consolidation in the respiratory system?
Consolidation in the respiratory system refers to the solidification of lung tissue due to the accumulation of fluid, cells, and debris, often seen in conditions like pneumonia. It leads to impaired gas exchange and can present on a chest x-ray as areas of increased opacity.
What are some of the treatments for pneumonia?
broad-spectrum antibiotics (until culture is back)
fluids (2-3L per day unless contraindicated→ think FVO)
Oxygen PRN
analgesics/ antipyretics
incentive spirometer
early ambulation
cluster care (decreases fatigue)
strict aseptic technique
What are some of the complications that can be seen with pneumonia?
Atelectasis
pleural effusion
empyema
pneumothorax
sepsis/septic shock
acute respiratory failure
lung abcess
What are the s/s of acute respiratory failure?
Symptoms of acute respiratory failure include rapid breathing, shortness of breath, confusion, rapid heart rate, cyanosis (bluish skin), and decreased oxygen saturation levels. Patients may also exhibit fatigue, agitation, and signs of respiratory distress.
What does the prevention look like for pneumonia
Vaccines
smoking cessation
hand hygiene/aseptic technique
adequate nutrition and rest
incentive spirometer post-op
What are the recommended pneumonia vaccines?
PCV13 for people aged 65 and older
PPSV23 for mainly older adults and immunocompromised/high-risk groups
Flu Shot-prevent infectoin
how is TB transmitted?
airborne droplets through coughing/sneezing/talking —> not spread through touching, sharing utensils or kissing
What are the risk factors for TB?
homeless/inner city residents
LTC facilities
IV drug use/sharing needles
poor access to healthcare
immunocompromised populations
What are the s/s of TB?
Dry cough that lasts for more than 3 weeks
night sweats
weight oss
fever/fatigue
hemoptysis
pleuritic chest pain
mucupurulent sputum
What are the diganostics for a TB test?
mantoux skin test
IGRA blood test
chest x-ray ( monitors for cavitation)
Sputum culture x 3 (GOLD STANDARD)
If someones recevies the TB titer what might they get a false positive for?
Some individuals may receive a false positive result for the TB titer if they have had previous vaccination with the BCG vaccine or if they have been exposed to non-tuberculosis mycobacteria.
What are the different types of TB?
Primary TB
Latent TB- asymptomatic not contagious
Active TB- symptomatic contagious
Post-primary/reactivation TB
What meds does TB treatment involve?
Rifampin, Isonazid, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol
How long is TB treatment?
TB treatment typically lasts for at least six to nine months, depending on the specific regimen and individual patient factors.
What are common side effects with rifampin?
orange secretions
What are common side effects with Isonazid or INH?
hepatotoxicity
What are common side effects for ethambutol?
optic neuritis
what are common side effects with pyrazinamide?
hyperuricemia
What is DOT therapy? r/t TB
Directly Observed Therapy, a treatment approach where a healthcare provider supervises each dose of medication taken by the patient, ensuring adherence to the treatment regimen.
How long is the patient considered infectioius after starting treatment for TB?
2-3 weels
What is the pahtophysiology of asthma?
chronic inflammation—> hyperresponsiveness—> bronchoconstritction—-» air trapping——> REVERSIBLE airflow limitation
What are triggers for Asthma?
allerggens, smoke, GERD, exercise, cold air, stress/anxiety, respiratory infectionsm occupational exposures.
What are the s/s of asthma?
wheezing, SOB, chest tightness, cough, accessory muscle use, silent chest
If you hear diminished or absent breath sounds during an asthma attack, what is this/
Silent chest —> MEDICAL EMERGENCY
What are the diagnostics for asthma?
H&P
Peak flow meter
pulse ox
allergy testing
increased IgE —→ increased eosiniophils—→ increased inflammation
What are the ranges for a peak flow meter?
The ranges for a peak flow meter are categorized as green (80-100% of personal best), yellow (50-80% of personal best), and red (below 50% of personal best), indicating varying levels of asthma control.
When do they start treating asthma when using peak flow ranges?
yellow range
What is a severe complication of asthma?
Status asthmaticus- that can result in hypoxia, hypercapnia, and respiratory failure
What does the treatment for asthma include?
SABA- rescue inhaler
ICS- first line controller
LABA- (never used alone)
ICS/LABA combosW
What should you do after using a ICS?
rinse your mouth to prevent thrush
What are the normal ranges for pH?
7.35-7.45Wha
What are the normal ranges for PaCO2?
35-45 respiratory (CO2 is acidic)
What is the normal ranges for HCO3? (basic)_
22-26
What is the normal range for PaO2?
80-100`
What does HTN increase the risk of?
MI, stroke, HF, and CKD
what is the formula for calculating BP?
Blood Pressure = Cardiac Output × Systemic Vascular Resistance