History and Types of Vaccines & Diagnostic Immunology

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These flashcards cover key concepts related to vaccines, types of vaccines, their production, and techniques in diagnostic immunology based on the lecture notes.

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50 Terms

1
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Who is known as the Father of Vaccination?

Edward Jenner

2
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What virus does Variola virus cause?

Smallpox

3
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What is the purpose of a vaccine?

To train the immune system to recognize and fight specific germs before they can make you seriously sick.

4
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What is herd immunity?

When most people in a population are immune, it protects those who are not immune by reducing the spread of disease.

5
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What type of vaccine mimics real infection?

Live Attenuated Vaccine

6
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An example of a nucleic acid vaccine is _.

Injected naked DNA

7
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What is the main advantage of live attenuated vaccines?

Strong, lifelong immunity (humoral + cell-mediated).

8
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What is a disadvantage of inactivated vaccines?

Requires boosters; weaker immune response.

9
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What does VLP stand for in vaccine types?

Virus-like Particle

10
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How do adjuvants enhance vaccines?

They increase antigen presentation and improve vaccine effectiveness.

11
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What historical method was used for vaccine production?

Grown in animals, eggs, or cell cultures.

12
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Which vaccine involves using only antigenic fragments of the pathogen?

Subunit Vaccine

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What does the term 'recombinant' refer to in vaccine production?

Use of recombinant or nucleic acid technologies to produce vaccines.

14
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Describe the delivery method of vaccines via injection.

Directly administered into the muscle or tissue.

15
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What are the two types of diagnostic tests for immunity?

Direct tests and Indirect tests.

16
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What does a direct test detect?

Antigens or microbes.

17
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What is the outcome of the Precipitin Ring Test?

Formation of a visible cloudy ring indicating a positive result.

18
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Define Monoclonal Antibodies (Mabs).

Identical antibodies made by hybridomas formed from normal B cells and cancerous B cells.

19
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What does 'titer' refer to in immunology?

The highest serum dilution that still causes agglutination.

20
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In blood typing, what does the lack of antigens on RBCs indicate?

Type O blood.

21
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What virus does not cause agglutination when antibodies are present?

Positive for antibodies in the Viral Hemagglutination Inhibition Test.

22
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What do fluorescent antibody techniques help detect?

Microbes or patient’s antibodies.

23
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How is Direct ELISA different from Indirect ELISA?

Direct ELISA detects antigens while Indirect ELISA detects patient antibodies.

24
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What changes occur in a positive Direct ELISA test?

Color change indicates presence of antigen.

25
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What is an example of a monoclonal antibody use in testing?

Home pregnancy tests which detect hCG hormone.

26
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What type of vaccine cannot cause disease?

Subunit Vaccine.

27
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What is the role of skin patches in vaccine delivery?

Alternative method to inject vaccines by using a patch.

28
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What does the term 'humoral immunity' refer to?

Immunity mediated by antibodies produced by B cells.

29
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What is the significance of Edward Jenner’s experiment in 1798?

He used cowpox to protect people from smallpox, leading to the development of vaccines.

30
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Explain the separation of antibodies in the Indirect Test.

A secondary antibody binds to the patient’s antibody.

31
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What is the advantage of Nucleic Acid Vaccines?

Safe, stable, and fast to develop.

32
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What does the term 'hybridoma' refer to?

The fusion of a myeloma cell with a normal B cell.

33
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What diagnostic method uses red blood cells to determine blood type?

Hemagglutination.

34
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What does a positive result in the Direct Agglutination test indicate?

Presence of antibodies that clump antigens.

35
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What type of vaccine is associated with a strong immune response but is complex to produce?

Recombinant Vector Vaccine.

36
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What common reaction indicates the presence of antibodies in the Viral Hemagglutination Inhibition Test?

No clumping of red blood cells.

37
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What action does a secondary antibody perform in diagnostic immunology tests?

Binds to the patient's antibody.

38
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What is the purpose of the ELISA test?

To detect the presence of specific antigens or antibodies.

39
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How does the sandwich format work in a home pregnancy test?

Free antibodies bind to hCG and form a sandwich with capture antibodies for a color change.

40
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What defines a type A blood in blood typing?

A antigen on RBCs with Anti-B antibodies in plasma.

41
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What is required for a successful Direct ELISA test?

Presence of the antigen linked to the enzyme linked antibody.

42
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How is the antigen of interest indicated in a Direct FA test?

Fluorescent dye-tagged antibody binds to it.

43
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What are the implications of a higher antibody titer?

Indicates stronger immunity.

44
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What are the components of soluble antigens in the Precipitin Ring Test?

Antigens that form a visible cloudy ring with antibodies.

45
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What does agglutination with Anti-A serum indicate about the blood type?

Type A blood.

46
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What are the safety traits of Subunit Vaccines?

Cannot cause disease; very safe.

47
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What is the function of adjuvants in vaccines?

To enhance the immune response.

48
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What type of tissue is typically used for producing vaccines in modern methods?

Cell cultures.

49
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Describe how the Indirect FA works.

Fluorescent antibody binds to the patient’s antibody.

50
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What diagnostic use do monoclonal antibodies have in medical tests like pregnancy tests?

Detect specific hormones like hCG.