RADI 108 FINAL

Where is the central axis for an RAO esophagus?

T5-T6

When mixing barium, how many parts water to barium would you mix for thick barium?

1:4

What is the ratio for thin barium?

1:1

Which body type would have a stomach that sits low and vertical

hyposthenic

What is the correct order of the small bowel?

duodenum, jejunum, ileum

What is the opening leaving the distal stomach?

pyloric orifice

Where are most of the nutrients absorbed (and transported to the circulatory system) in the alimentary canal?

small intestine

If a patient swallowed a barium sulfate and water mixture along with some air (gas pills) and was lying in an RAO position, where would the air and barium be located?

Air would be in the fundus, barium would be in the body and pylorus

What cartilage closes off the nasopharynx?

soft palate

Abdominal segment of the esophagus?

cardiac antrum

What are the parts of the duodenum?

superior, descending , horizontal, and ascending

Where to the small and large bowel join?

ileocecal valve

Which major part of the large intestine is the appendix attached to?

cecum

An example of a radiolucent contrast medium would be:

Co2 gas crystals

When doing a BE, why should you be concerned if the patient had a colonoscopy within the same week?

the pt may have had a biopsy during the procedure

Small finger like projections located in the small intestine are termed what?

villi

What position is the patient put into prior to insertion of the enema tip?

sims

Digital fluoroscopy reads in what kind of mode?

progressive

True or false: An ap axial view (BE) has a 25 degree cephalic angle.

false

1 multiple choice option

What does an AP axial butterfly (BE) view demonstrate?

sigmoid colon

While completing your after films during the BE exam, you place your patient into a left lateral decubitus position. Which of the following would be the most important to demonstrate on your pictures?

hepatic flexure

Which of the following views would you do for a double contrast enema to better visualize the rectum?

Ventral decubitus rectum

True or false: The RPO is done to better visualize the splenic flexure.

true

1 multiple choice option

If spasm occurs during a BE, what can be given to the patient intravenously (not added to barium) to help relax the bowel?

glucagon

Where is the CR center for Upper GI views?

L1

How much rotation is required for an RAO upper GI?

30 degrees

Where should the BE bag be hung?

no more than 24 inches

If your pt is laying on his/her stomach, where would the barium (BE study) be located primarily?

transverse colon

This is a twisting of a portion of the intestine on its own mesentery leading to an obstruction:

volvulus

What is the range of mA for a fluoro tube?

.5-5 mA

How much flux gain does a typical II have?

50

True or false: Minification gain happens because the image is larger at the output phosphor and smaller at the input phosphor.

false

1 multiple choice option

What is your minification gain if the diameter of your input screen is 20 and the output diameter is 5?

16

What is the typical diameter of an output screen?

1"

When you use your "mag" view in fluoro, what happens to pt dose?

increases

True or false: The photocathode absorbs electrons and emits light, a process called photoemission

false

1 multiple choice option

Which of the following would be the correct order for ordering exams?

Nuc Med, IVU, UGI

3 multiple choice options

What is the correct order when an xray beam hits the II?

Input, photocathode, focusing lenses, output

If done properly, radiographs must be visualized under how many lux (best answer)?

750

3 multiple choice options

What is the name of the area of kidney that serves to transmit the renal artery, vein, lymphatics, nerves, and ureters?

hilum

There are two endocrine glands that sit on top each kidney, what are these glands called?

suprarenal glands (adrenal glands)

The major calycles join to form what structure within the kidney?

renal pelvis

Which contrast has a higher osmolality, ionic or non-ionic?

ionic

What is the normal range for creatinine levels?

1.2

What is a common drug used for premedicating a pt prior to injection?

benadryl

There are two COMMON side effects that occur in just about everyone that is injected with a contrast, name one of them:

hot flash

A common emergency drug used for reactions to contrast is:

epinephrine

For an oblique IVU, which side will show ureter free from superimposition?

downside

How many degrees do you rotate your pt for an oblique abdomen picture (full length) during an IVU?

30

What is a bolus injection?

When the contrast is pushed through a syringe (entire dose at one time)

True or False: The bevel of the needle should always face down when inserting.

false

1 multiple choice option

How many inches away from injection site should a tourniquet be placed?

3-4 inches above

Where is the trigone located?

bladder

Which category of reactions to contrast is classified as life threatening?

vasovagal

Where is the most common injection site?

median cubital

What does retrograde mean?

against the normal flow

When doing an AP axial shot for cystogram, what is your tube angle?

15 caudad

How many degrees do you rotate your patient when doing an RPO cystogram picture?

45

What is the fulcrum?

pivot point for your tomo

What is the more common fulcrum system used in radiography?

Plantographic principle

The type of tomographic movements that provide the maximum tomographic amplitude and the thinnest cuts are:

trispiral and hypocycloidal

When the movement of the tube and IR follow a straight line, the tomographic motion is defined as:

linear

What is a Nephogram?

These are images taken immediately following injection of the contrast during an IVU exam

Where is the centering for an erect post. void film during an IVU procedure if the pt. complained of a prolapsed bladder?

2 inches below crest

The liver produces a large amount of bile a day. How much?

1 quart

What two ducts join to form the common bile duct?

common hepatic duct and cystic duct

What are the functions of the gallbladder?

stores bile, concentrate bile, contracts when stimulated to secrete bile

What is the most common site for impaction of gallstones?

Hepatopancreatic ampulla

What portion of the duodenum does the biliary duct enter?

descending

How many ccs of bile can the gallbladder store?

30-40

Approximately what level does the aorta bifurcate into the common iliac arteries?

L4

What are the 3 functions of the cardiovascular system?

removal of waste products, maintenance of body temp, transportation of oxygen for normal body function

True or false: When listening for a pt's blood pressure, the diastolic phase is when the atria and ventricles contract.

false

Blood is returned from below the diaphragm to the right atrium by what major vessel?

inferior vena cava

What is the largest lymph vessel in the body?

thoracic duct

What is the largest vein in the body?

great saphenous

Where is the mitral valve located?

between the left atrium and the left ventricle

Where does the portal system drain blood from?

digestive system, spleen, small intestine

The ____________ carry deoxygenated blood to the lungs and the ____________ carry the oxygenated blood back to the heart from the lungs.

Pulmonary arteries, pulmonary veins

What is the correct sequence of vessels starting from the aortic arch down the left arm?

subclavian, axillary, brachial, ulnar, radial, etc.

How many segments are there of the thoracic aorta?

4

What are the 5 branches of the Circle of Willis?

branches of internal carotids, anterior cerebral, posterior cerebral, anterior and posterior communicating

What percentage of the plasma consists of water?

92%

True or false: Plasma repairs tears in blood vessel walls and promotes blood clotting.

false

Which vein is the major tributary for returning blood from the chest to the vena cava?

azygos

What is a superficial vein of the upper limb?

basilic

A minimum of how many views should be obtained in trauma situations?

2

A common grid ratio for mobile work is:

6 or 8:1

This is a fracture where the bone is crushed or splintered at the site of impact:

comminutated

Fx of fifth metacarpal:

boxer's fx

Fx of proximal half of ulna with dislocation of radial head:

monteggias

Fx at the base of the 1st metacarpal:

Bennett's fx

Incomplete fx with broken cortex on one side of bone only:

greenstick

Fx of distal radium with anterior displacement:

smiths

Fx of distal radium with posterior displacement:

colles

Fx due to severe stress to a tendon:

avulsion

Fx where the fx line radiates from a central point:

stellate

When using a mobile C-arm, which position produces the least amount of personnel exposure?

xray tube on bottom/intensifier on top

You are x-raying a pt with a fiberglass cast, how many KVP should you go up for your picture?

4

Who is the surgical person who maintains the sterile fields?

certified surgical tech