pmch high yield

A public health student is asked what SDG 3 mainly aims to achieve. Which is the BEST answer?

A. Reduce global poverty only

B. Ensure healthy lives and promote well-being for all ages

C. Increase agricultural productivity

D. Promote gender equality only

B. Ensure healthy lives and promote well-being for all ages

The global SDG Target 3.1 aims to reduce maternal mortality ratio to less than:

A. 50 per 100,000 live births

B. 90 per 100,000 live births

C. 189 per 100,000 live births

D. 70 per 100,000 live births

D. 70 per 100,000 live births

Under the Philippine Development Plan, the Philippines aimed to reduce MMR to what value by 2022?

A. 70 per 100,000 live births

B. 120 per 100,000 live births

C. 90 per 100,000 live births

D. 189 per 100,000 live births

C. 90 per 100,000 live births

Which of the following was one of the effects of COVID-19 on SDG 3 progress?

A. Lowered global life expectancy

B. Increased immunization coverage

C. Complete eradication of malaria

D. Improved universal health coverage

A. Lowered global life expectancy

A lecturer asks which disease caused the Philippines to rank fourth worldwide in incidence. Which disease is being described?

A. Malaria

B. HIV/AIDS

C. Hepatitis

D. Tuberculosis

D. Tuberculosis

Which Philippine province is highlighted as the only province not free of malaria?

A. Palawan

B. Cebu

C. Bataan

D. Iloilo

A. Palawan

Which of the following is NOT a TB risk factor mentioned in the PMCH trans?

A. Poor nutrition

B. Crowded environment

C. High vaccination rate

D. Poorly ventilated environment

C. High vaccination rate

DALY is best defined as:

A. Number of live births per 1,000 population

B. Loss of equivalent years of full health

C. Number of deaths among infants

D. Ratio of physicians to population

B. Loss of equivalent years of full health

Which law is known as the "Bible of local governance" and decentralized health service delivery to LGUs?

A. RA 9271

B. RA 11332

C. RA 9858

D. RA 7160

D. RA 7160

Under decentralization, municipalities and cities are mainly tasked with delivery of:

A. Primary health services

B. Tertiary hospital services

C. National policy making

D. Specialty hospital management

A. Primary health services

Under RA 7160, provinces are responsible mainly for:

A. Primary barangay health stations only

B. National legislation

C. Secondary hospitals

D. Quarantine surveillance at airports

C. Secondary hospitals

Which law strengthened the regulatory capacity of DOH in quarantine and international health surveillance?

A. RA 7160

B. RA 9271

C. RA 9858

D. RA 10625

B. RA 9271

Which is a major constraint in accessing essential drugs in the Philippines?

A. Excessive supply of generics

B. Absence of patent protection

C. High cost of medicine

D. No drug advertising

C. High cost of medicine

Which statement is NOT a major constraint in accessing essential drugs?

A. Unlimited public medicine budget

B. Limited availability

C. Irrational use

D. High cost

A. Unlimited public medicine budget

The Philippine Health Agenda slogan is:

A. Health for some

B. TB elimination only

C. Private health for all

D. All for health towards health for all

D. All for health towards health for all

In family medicine, "disease" is best described as:

A. The sufferer's social experience only

B. A pathology in the body

C. A family cultural belief only

D. The emotional meaning of symptoms only

B. A pathology in the body

"Illness" differs from disease because illness includes:

A. Only laboratory results

B. Only physician diagnosis

C. Patient and family experience of the disease

D. Only physical examination findings

C. Patient and family experience of the disease

A physician only treats the biologic abnormality and ignores the patient's fear, family problems, and cultural belief. What is being neglected?

A. Illness

B. Disease

C. Diagnosis

D. Laboratory confirmation

A. Illness

Kleinman's questions are mainly used to explore the patient's:

A. Blood chemistry

B. Legal identity

C. Immunization status

D. Explanatory model

D. Explanatory model

Which of the following is a Kleinman-type question?

A. What is your serum sodium level?

B. What do you think caused the problem?

C. What is your platelet count?

D. What is your blood type?

B. What do you think caused the problem?

A family becomes silent and avoids discussing the diagnosis with the patient. According to the trans, this may cause:

A. Better openness

B. Faster diagnosis

C. Process of isolation and perceived abandonment

D. Lower anxiety always

C. Process of isolation and perceived abandonment

Which stage of the family illness trajectory involves the warning sign of malaise before contact with medical care?

A. Major therapeutic efforts

B. Adjustment to permanency

C. Family reaction to death

D. Onset of illness

D. Onset of illness

Which stage involves choosing therapy while considering psychosocial preparedness and economic capability?

A. Major therapeutic efforts

B. Onset of illness

C. Perinatal period

D. Death registration

A. Major therapeutic efforts

In choosing a therapeutic plan, the physician should ask: "Of what good is therapy if the family cannot afford it?" This emphasizes:

A. Ignoring family resources

B. Specialist-only decision making

C. Economic therapeutic planning

D. Laboratory-only management

C. Economic therapeutic planning

A patient continues to be treated by the family as sick even after recovery and is not reintegrated into normal family role. This is a problem in:

A. Civil registration

B. Death registration

C. Birth certification

D. Adjustment to outcome

D. Adjustment to outcome

Chronic illness commonly causes all of the following in families EXCEPT:

A. Complete absence of caregiver burden

B. Prolonged fear and anxiety

C. Overindulgence toward the sick member

D. Anger and resentment

A. Complete absence of caregiver burden

A patient with terminal illness and his family initially say, "This cannot be happening to us." This response is most consistent with:

A. Acceptance

B. Denial

C. Reintegration

D. Decentralization

B. Denial

The classic grief reaction sequence DABDA means:

A. Diagnosis, assessment, biopsy, discharge, admission

B. Death, anxiety, behavior, disease, acceptance

C. Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance

D. Disease, anatomy, burden, death, adjustment

C. Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance

A family moves into disequilibrium because illness exceeds its problem-solving skills and resources. This is called:

A. Civil registry

B. Vital statistics

C. Passive surveillance

D. Family in crisis

D. Family in crisis

Which is NOT a common impact of illness on families?

A. Guaranteed family stability

B. Emotional impact

C. Financial strain

D. Disrupted routines

A. Guaranteed family stability

In hospitalization, which family member is described as having special economic burden?

A. Mother

B. Father

C. Child

D. Geriatric patient

B. Father

In hospitalization, sickness of which family member may have the greatest impact on other family members and high risk for family dysfunction?

A. Father

B. Neighbor

C. Mother

D. Employer

C. Mother

Which practice is part of providing physical care to a sick family member?

A. Ignore hydration

B. Avoid cleaning surfaces

C. Stop all communication

D. Offer rest and frequent fluids

D. Offer rest and frequent fluids

Which is an emotional support measure for a sick person?

A. Listen and validate feelings

B. Blame the patient for illness

C. Prevent all social connection

D. Avoid family communication

A. Listen and validate feelings

Civil registration is best defined as:

A. Temporary listing of barangay complaints

B. Continuous, permanent, compulsory, and universal recording of vital events

C. Optional recording of hospital admissions only

D. Private insurance documentation only

B. Continuous, permanent, compulsory, and universal recording of vital events

Which document gives legal proof of identity and facts about birth?

A. Death certificate

B. Morbidity form

C. Birth certificate

D. Interview schedule

C. Birth certificate

Which certificate provides legal evidence in claims and may establish a widowed person's right to remarriage?

A. Birth certificate

B. Vaccination card

C. School record

D. Death certificate

D. Death certificate

Act No. 3753 is also known as:

A. Civil Registry Law

B. Quarantine Act

C. Local Government Code

D. Mandatory Reporting Act

A. Civil Registry Law

Under P.D. 856, no remains shall be buried without:

A. Barangay clearance only

B. Death certificate

C. PhilHealth form

D. Police blotter only

B. Death certificate

RA 9858 is about legitimation of children born to parents:

A. Who are permanently separated only

B. Who are foreigners only

C. Below marrying age with no impediment to marry

D. Who have no birth certificate

C. Below marrying age with no impediment to marry

RA 10625 mandates which agency to administer civil registration functions?

A. DOH

B. DILG

C. PhilHealth

D. PSA

D. PSA

A baby is completely expelled from the mother and shows breathing and heartbeat. This is:

A. Live birth

B. Fetal death

C. Perinatal death only

D. Stillbirth only

A. Live birth

Fetal death is death before complete expulsion or extraction, with no breathing, heartbeat, cord pulsation, or voluntary movement after separation. This statement is:

A. False

B. True

B. True

If a birth occurs aboard an airplane while in transit, registration is a joint responsibility of the pilot and:

A. Pharmacist

B. School nurse

C. Parents

D. Police investigator only

C. Parents

In unattended births, who has responsibility to cause registration of birth?

A. Only the hospital administrator

B. Only the national government

C. Only the police

D. Parents or any knowledgeable person

D. Parents or any knowledgeable person

For a legitimate child, the middle name is usually the:

A. Mother's maiden name

B. Father's surname

C. Barangay name

D. Attendant's surname

A. Mother's maiden name

For an illegitimate child not acknowledged by the father, the last name is usually the:

A. Father's surname

B. Mother's surname

C. Physician's surname

D. Guardian's surname automatically

B. Mother's surname

Death registration requires forwarding to the Local Health Officer within what period after death?

A. 12 hours

B. 24 hours

C. 48 hours

D. 7 days

C. 48 hours

For mass death due to calamity where the body is unidentified, the death certificate may bear the annotation:

A. No Cause Needed

B. Emergency Only

C. For Insurance Only

D. Body Not Identified

D. Body Not Identified

The perinatal period is defined as:

A. 22 completed weeks of gestation up to 7 days after birth

B. Birth to 1 year only

C. 8 days to 28 days only

D. Conception to 5 years old

A. 22 completed weeks of gestation up to 7 days after birth

In a death certificate for ages 8 days and over, the immediate cause is the:

A. Disease that started the whole chain only

B. Final disease, injury, or condition

C. Insurance provider

D. Place of death

B. Final disease, injury, or condition

In death certification, the underlying cause is the condition that:

A. Is always the final mode of death

B. Is always cardiac arrest

C. Gave rise to the antecedent cause

D. Is never reported

C. Gave rise to the antecedent cause

Which should NOT be entered in death by external cause section?

A. Nature of condition

B. Circumstances that gave rise to it

C. Information useful for life insurance claims

D. Firm or organization names

D. Firm or organization names

RA 11332 is also known as the:

A. Mandatory Reporting of Notifiable Diseases and Health Events of Public Concern Act

B. Civil Registry Law

C. Local Government Code

D. Quarantine Act of 2004

A. Mandatory Reporting of Notifiable Diseases and Health Events of Public Concern Act

Under RA 11332, who regularly updates and issues the list of notifiable diseases and health events?

A. Barangay treasurer

B. DOH Epidemiology Bureau

C. PhilHealth only

D. Municipal assessor

B. DOH Epidemiology Bureau

Who declares epidemics, except when it threatens national security?

A. President only

B. Local civil registrar

C. Secretary of Health

D. Barangay captain only

C. Secretary of Health

Who can declare a State of Public Health Emergency?

A. Local Civil Registrar

B. Hospital administrator only

C. School nurse

D. President of the Republic of the Philippines

D. President of the Republic of the Philippines

Which is prohibited under RA 11332?

A. Unauthorized disclosure of private and confidential patient information

B. Disease surveillance

C. Capacity building

D. Immediate reporting of notifiable diseases

A. Unauthorized disclosure of private and confidential patient information

Incidence rate mainly gives information about the:

A. Total old cases only

B. Risk of developing disease

C. Number of deaths only

D. Family role disruption

B. Risk of developing disease

The denominator of incidence rate is the:

A. Total deaths

B. Total hospitals

C. Population at risk

D. Total households only

C. Population at risk

Which rate records old and new cases at a given time?

A. Incidence rate

B. Case fatality rate only

C. Crude death rate only

D. Prevalence rate

D. Prevalence rate

A disease is chronic and patients survive longer due to better medical care. What happens to prevalence?

A. It may increase

B. It always becomes zero

C. It becomes equal to mortality

D. It becomes unrelated to disease duration

A. It may increase

Which statement is TRUE about prevalence?

A. It always needs two sets of observations

B. It can be determined with one measurement

C. It only counts new cases

D. It measures only mortality

B. It can be determined with one measurement

Which is more useful for studying etiologic risk factors of disease?

A. Swaroop's index only

B. Death certificate only

C. Incidence rate

D. Birth certificate only

C. Incidence rate

Crude death rate is not ideal for inter-area comparison because it:

A. Uses live births only

B. Counts only infants

C. Measures only maternal deaths

D. Masks age differences

D. Masks age differences

A crude death rate less than 10 per 1,000 population is interpreted as:

A. Low crude death rate

B. High crude death rate

C. Infant mortality only

D. Case fatality only

A. Low crude death rate

A crude death rate greater than 20 per 1,000 population is interpreted as:

A. Low crude death rate

B. High crude death rate

C. Neonatal death rate

D. No mortality problem

B. High crude death rate

Which mortality measure is usually used in cohort analysis?

A. Crude birth rate

B. Swaroop's index only

C. Age-specific death rate

D. Point prevalence

C. Age-specific death rate

Cause-specific death rate accuracy depends mainly on:

A. Number of barangay captains

B. Number of hospitals only

C. Family size only

D. Standard of diagnosis and report

D. Standard of diagnosis and report

Swaroop's index is better when higher because it means:

A. More people live beyond 50 before dying

B. More infants are dying

C. More deaths are unregistered

D. More epidemics occur

A. More people live beyond 50 before dying

Infant mortality rate is considered one of the most sensitive indices of:

A. Hospital income

B. Health condition of the general population

C. Civil status only

D. Number of physicians only

B. Health condition of the general population

The denominator for infant mortality rate is:

A. Total pregnancies

B. Total deaths

C. Live births

D. Total women aged 15-49

C. Live births

Low infant mortality rate may imply all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Adequate immunization program

B. Good environmental sanitation

C. Good prenatal and postnatal services

D. Poor maternal and infant nutrition

D. Poor maternal and infant nutrition

Neonatal mortality rate reflects mainly the:

A. Status of the mother before and during pregnancy

B. Number of deaths from accidents only

C. Number of elderly deaths

D. Degree of urbanization only

A. Status of the mother before and during pregnancy

Which is one of the three major causes of neonatal deaths mentioned?

A. Diabetes mellitus

B. Sepsis

C. Stroke

D. Chronic kidney disease

B. Sepsis

Maternal mortality rate measures the risk of dying from causes associated with:

A. Old age only

B. Occupational injury only

C. Childbirth

D. Communicable diseases only

C. Childbirth

Case fatality rate represents the risk of dying among:

A. All newborns only

B. All pregnant women only

C. All people in a country only

D. Individuals who had the particular disease

D. Individuals who had the particular disease

Primary health care was described as essential health care that should be:

A. Universally accessible and acceptable

B. Available only in tertiary hospitals

C. Focused only on curative medicine

D. Separated from community participation

A. Universally accessible and acceptable

Which is an element of primary health care?

A. Cosmetic surgery access

B. Education concerning prevailing health problems

C. Tertiary chemotherapy only

D. Private insurance enrollment only

B. Education concerning prevailing health problems

Which of the following is NOT an element of primary health care?

A. Immunization against major infectious diseases

B. Provision of essential drugs

C. Exclusive focus on specialty hospitals

D. Appropriate treatment of common diseases and injuries

C. Exclusive focus on specialty hospitals

PHC guiding principles include availability, accessibility, and acceptability of health services. This means services should be:

A. Available only in Manila

B. Limited to private hospitals

C. Given only after specialist referral

D. Delivered where the people are

D. Delivered where the people are

The use of traditional, complementary, and alternative medicine together with Western medicine in the Philippines relates to which PHC principle?

A. Acceptability

B. Case fatality

C. Death registration

D. Proportionate mortality

A. Acceptability

Community participation is important in PHC because it:

A. Removes the need for health workers

B. Increases awareness and involvement in health issues

C. Replaces all national programs

D. Eliminates disease surveillance

B. Increases awareness and involvement in health issues

Self-reliance in PHC means the community:

A. Depends completely on tertiary hospitals

B. Avoids participation in health planning

C. Knows health problems and can manage possible actions

D. Refuses all health education

C. Knows health problems and can manage possible actions

Social mobilization in PHC requires:

A. Isolation of health workers

B. Removal of community organizations

C. Only hospital-based action

D. Multisectoral and interdisciplinary linkages

D. Multisectoral and interdisciplinary linkages

Decentralization in PHC means leadership, support, and management of resources are delegated to:

A. Local leaders in the community

B. Foreign agencies only

C. Hospital specialists only

D. Private companies only

A. Local leaders in the community

Which is a challenge in implementing primary health care?

A. Excess rural health manpower

B. Poor staffing and shortage of health personnel

C. Unlimited financial support

D. Perfect infrastructure

B. Poor staffing and shortage of health personnel

Which is a mitigation measure for effective PHC?

A. Remove clinical guidelines

B. Avoid essential drugs list

C. Encourage community participation through rapport building

D. Decrease planning process

C. Encourage community participation through rapport building

An interview is best defined as:

A. A laboratory test only

B. A death registration form

C. A census count only

D. A conversation with a purpose

D. A conversation with a purpose

Which of the following is a type of interview mentioned?

A. Face-to-face

B. Autopsy only

C. Drug trial only

D. Birth registration only

A. Face-to-face

An interview schedule is useful because it:

A. Eliminates the need for questions

B. Facilitates conduct of interview and improves reliability of data

C. Prevents standardization

D. Is only for death certificates

B. Facilitates conduct of interview and improves reliability of data

Which is a characteristic of an interview schedule?

A. Always unstructured

B. Only for hospital deaths

C. Time-bound

D. Not related to data accuracy

C. Time-bound

In evidence-based medicine, if risk with conventional treatment is 50% and risk with new treatment is 25%, the absolute risk reduction is:

A. 50%

B. 75%

C. 100%

D. 25%

D. 25%

If absolute risk reduction is 25%, the number needed to treat is:

A. 4

B. 10

C. 25

D. 50

A. 4

If risk ratio is 1 or 100%, the interpretation is:

A. New treatment is always better

B. No difference between groups

C. New treatment is always harmful

D. Disease has been eliminated

B. No difference between groups

If risk in conventional treatment is 50% and risk in new treatment is 75%, the new treatment is interpreted as:

A. Perfectly protective

B. No difference

C. Worse or harmful

D. Always curative

C. Worse or harmful

Which statement about prevalence and incidence is NOT TRUE?

A. Prevalence counts old and new cases

B. Incidence measures risk of developing disease

C. Prevalence is affected by disease duration

D. Incidence counts only deaths

D. Incidence counts only deaths

A city wants to estimate workload for chronic mental illness facilities. Which measure is most useful?

A. Prevalence rate

B. Crude birth rate only

C. Perinatal mortality only

D. Death certificate only

A. Prevalence rate

Which measure is preferred for analyzing mental illness over a time period because it includes point prevalence plus new cases and recurrences?

A. Neonatal mortality rate

B. Period prevalence rate

C. Sex-specific death rate

D. Swaroop's index

B. Period prevalence rate

Which statement is TRUE about civil registration and health agenda?

A. It is unrelated to health planning

B. It is used only for school enrollment

C. It is a cornerstone of health information systems

D. It excludes mortality data

C. It is a cornerstone of health information systems