Comprehensive Cognitive & Biological Psychology – Exam Review

These question-and-answer flashcards cover major concepts, definitions, experiments, and brain mechanisms from the lecture transcript, spanning neuroplasticity, memory, attention, decision-making biases, abnormal psychology, neurobiology, perception, learning, stress, and conditioning. They are designed to give comprehensive practice for exam preparation.

What is neuroplasticity?

The brain’s capacity to change its structure and function in response to experience, often via strengthened synaptic connections.

Define long-term potentiation (LTP).

A persistent strengthening of synapses based on recent activity patterns; considered a cellular basis of learning and memory.

State Hebb’s rule in one sentence.

Cells that fire together wire together.

Which cortical area enlarges in professional violinists?

The part of the sensorimotor cortex representing the fingers of the left hand.

How did smartphone use affect the somatosensory cortex in Gindrat et al. (2015)?

Heavy users showed greater activity in the cortical ‘thumb area.’

Which deep brain structure is essential for forming new declarative memories?

The hippocampus.

What memory impairment results from bilateral hippocampal damage?

Anterograde amnesia—the inability to form new memories.

Differentiate semantic and episodic memory.

Semantic = facts & general knowledge; episodic = memories tied to a specific time and place.

Which type of memory did patient H.M. retain?

Procedural memory—he could learn motor skills despite amnesia for the learning episodes.

Where are fully consolidated memories ultimately stored?

Across distributed cortical regions (e.g., neocortex, amygdala, cerebellum, prefrontal cortex).

What does fMRI measure?

Changes in blood oxygenation (BOLD signal) that correlate with neural activity.

What is the DRM false-memory effect?

People recall or recognise semantically related but non-presented ‘lure’ words due to memory distortion.

Recognition vs. recall—what’s the difference?

Recognition = identifying something as familiar; recall = actively retrieving information without cues.

Define retrieval practice in one phrase.

The testing effect—actively pulling information from memory to strengthen it.

Why is spaced practice superior to cramming?

Spacing allows consolidation over time and reduces interference, leading to longer retention.

What is elaboration in learning?

Linking material to meaningful associations or personal examples to deepen encoding.

Explain “desirable difficulties.”

Learning challenges (e.g., spaced or retrieval practice) that slow short-term performance but improve long-term retention.

Why is highlighting a poor primary study strategy?

It promotes shallow encoding focused on surface features rather than deeper meaning.

What is the self-reference effect?

Memory is improved when information is related to oneself.

State Craik & Lockhart’s depth-of-processing principle.

Deeper, meaning-based encoding leads to better memory than shallow, surface processing.

Define attention in cognitive psychology.

A family of mechanisms that select a subset of information for further processing.

What is inattentional blindness?

Failure to notice a visible object because attention is engaged elsewhere (e.g., the gorilla study).

Explain change blindness.

Failure to detect large scene changes when visual disruption prevents continuous comparison.

What is a visual pop-out?

An item with a salient primitive feature (e.g., color) that captures attention effortlessly.

Why do conjunction searches require focused attention?

Targets are defined by a combination of features that do not pop out automatically.

Define automaticity.

Performance of a task with minimal cognitive effort, often hard to suppress (e.g., reading in the Stroop task).

What is the Stroop effect?

Slower naming of ink color when the printed word conflicts, due to automatic reading interference.

What proportion of drivers were impaired while multitasking in Watson & Strayer (2010)?

97.5 % showed impairment; only 2.5 % were ‘supertaskers.’

What is a switch cost?

The time/accuracy penalty incurred when shifting from one task to another.

List the four components of Baddeley’s working-memory model.

Phonological loop, visuospatial sketchpad, episodic buffer, central executive.

What does a 2-back task assess?

Working-memory updating by requiring recognition of items seen two trials earlier.

Which brain area monitors conflict and triggers cognitive control?

The anterior cingulate cortex (ACC).

Define the availability bias.

Judging likelihood based on how easily examples come to mind.

What is the representativeness heuristic?

Estimating probability by similarity to a stereotype rather than base rates.

Explain the conjunction fallacy.

Assuming a specific combination is more likely than a single constituent event (logically impossible).

Distinguish System 1 and System 2 thinking.

System 1 = fast, intuitive, heuristic; System 2 = slow, analytical, effortful.

Why can maximisers be less satisfied with decisions?

Endless comparison amplifies regret and reduces satisfaction.

What does the Implicit Association Test measure?

Strength of automatic associations between categories and positive/negative valence.

Define motivated reasoning.

Using reasoning to justify pre-existing beliefs rather than to discover truth.

List the four criteria often used to define abnormality.

Statistical infrequency, violation of social norms, distress, impairment.

How many disorders were listed in DSM-II vs. DSM-5?

DSM-II had 182; DSM-5 lists 300+.

Give two limitations of defining abnormality by social norms.

Norms change over time and vary across cultures; conformity ≠ mental health.

Why is Dissociative Identity Disorder controversial?

Popularly mistaken for ‘split personality’; diagnosis involves ≥2 identity states with amnesia, distress, and no substance basis.

State the diathesis-stress model in one line.

Mental disorders arise from interaction of vulnerability (diathesis) and environmental stress.

Describe classical vs. operant conditioning as behavioural causes of disorders.

Classical pairs neutral cues with aversive events; operant involves reinforcement that maintains maladaptive behaviour (e.g., avoidance).

What are SSRIs, benzodiazepines, and antipsychotics designed to target?

SSRIs → serotonin reuptake; benzodiazepines → GABA-A receptors; antipsychotics → dopamine (esp. D2) receptors.

For which condition is ECT most effective?

Severe, treatment-resistant major depression.

Define anxiety vs. fear.

Anxiety = future-oriented apprehension with tension; fear = present-oriented response to immediate threat.

Differentiate obsessions and compulsions in OCD.

Obsessions = intrusive thoughts; compulsions = repetitive acts to reduce distress.

What is negative reinforcement in anxiety disorders?

Avoidance removes distress temporarily, strengthening anxious behaviour.

List the three symptom clusters of schizophrenia.

Positive/psychotic, disorganisation, negative symptoms.

What neurotransmitter hypothesis explains schizophrenia’s positive symptoms?

The dopamine hypothesis—excessive D2 activity in certain pathways.

Approximately how many neurons are in the human brain?

About 86 billion.

Function of the axon hillock?

Sums EPSPs and IPSPs; if threshold is reached, initiates an action potential.

What is multiple sclerosis in neural terms?

An autoimmune demyelinating disease that slows/disrupts axonal conduction.

Contrast somatic and autonomic nervous systems.

Somatic = voluntary skeletal control; autonomic = involuntary visceral regulation (sympathetic & parasympathetic).

Define reflex arc.

A rapid spinal-cord loop producing a motor response without cortical input.

Sympathetic vs. parasympathetic effects on heart rate.

Sympathetic increases heart rate; parasympathetic decreases it.

Rostral vs. caudal orientation in the brain.

Rostral = toward the front; caudal = toward the back.

Name the three parts of the hindbrain.

Medulla, pons, cerebellum.

Primary function of the cerebellum.

Coordination and fine-tuning of movements; damage causes ataxia.

Which midbrain structure processes visual orienting?

The superior colliculus.

List the four lobes of the cerebral cortex.

Frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital.

Role of the corpus callosum.

Major white-matter tract allowing communication between hemispheres.

Differentiate electrical and chemical synapses.

Electrical = gap junction, very fast; chemical = neurotransmitter release across synaptic cleft, slower but more flexible.

Sequence of events at a chemical synapse (first and last step).

AP arrives → Ca²⁺ influx → vesicle release → NT binds receptors → postsynaptic potential → reuptake clears NT.

What is an EPSP?

An excitatory postsynaptic potential—depolarising graded change that can bring the neuron toward threshold.

Resting membrane potential of a typical neuron.

Approximately –70 mV.

Threshold voltage for firing an action potential.

About –55 mV at the axon hillock.

Name three criteria that define a neurotransmitter.

Present in presynaptic neuron, released in Ca²⁺-dependent manner, has specific receptors on postsynaptic cell.

Glutamate’s primary role in the CNS.

Main excitatory neurotransmitter; critical for plasticity and learning.

What is NMDA-receptor-dependent LTP?

A synaptic strengthening mechanism where NMDA activation inserts more AMPA receptors, boosting future EPSPs.

GABA synthesis precursor.

Synthesised from glutamate via glutamic acid decarboxylase (GAD).

Distinguish nicotinic and muscarinic acetylcholine receptors.

Nicotinic = ionotropic (fast); muscarinic = metabotropic (slow, modulatory).

Why do Alzheimer’s drugs target acetylcholine?

Enhancing cortical ACh can temporarily improve cognitive symptoms.

Identify the two major dopaminergic pathways.

Mesolimbic (reward) and nigrostriatal (movement).

Define psychopharmacology.

The study of how drugs affect the nervous system and behaviour.

Agonist vs. antagonist (drug action).

Agonist activates a receptor; antagonist blocks it.

Explain drug tolerance.

Decreased effect of a drug after repeated use, often leading to higher required doses.

Primary mechanism of benzodiazepines.

They enhance GABA-A receptor activity, producing anxiolytic and sedative effects.

Which neurotransmitter systems does alcohol acutely influence?

Enhances GABA, inhibits glutamate, and boosts dopamine/endorphins transiently.

Define hormone vs. neurotransmitter (speed & range).

Hormones are slower, blood-borne signals with widespread targets; neurotransmitters act quickly at synapses.

Name the three classes of hormones.

Peptide/protein, steroid, and amine hormones.

Outline the HPA axis sequence.

Hypothalamus releases CRF → pituitary releases ACTH → adrenal cortex releases cortisol (glucocorticoids).

Difference between acute and chronic stress effects.

Acute stress is adaptive; chronic stress leads to maladaptive outcomes (e.g., hippocampal damage).

Define perception.

The brain’s interpretation of sensory input to create a coherent representation of the environment.

Absolute threshold definition.

The minimum stimulus intensity detected 50 % of the time.

Weber’s Law in one sentence.

The just-noticeable difference is a constant proportion of the original stimulus.

What sensory receptors regenerate throughout life?

Olfactory sensory neurons.

Population coding in olfaction—what is it?

Odours are represented by patterns of activity across many receptor types.

Why is ‘hotness’ of chili not a taste?

Capsaicin activates pain/temperature receptors (somatosensory), not taste buds.

Name the five basic tastes.

Sweet, sour, salty, bitter, umami.

What genetic locus explains PROP/PTC tasting differences?

TAS2R38 bitter-receptor gene variants.

Define two-point discrimination.

The smallest distance at which two touch points are perceived as separate; reflects tactile acuity.

What is cortical magnification in somatosensation?

Disproportionate cortical area devoted to body parts with high receptor density (e.g., fingertips).

Gate control theory of pain—basic idea.

Spinal ‘gates’ modulate pain signals; competing touch input or descending control can close the gate.

Define proprioception.

Sense of body position from receptors in muscles, tendons, and joints.

Which inner-ear organs detect rotational vs. linear acceleration?

Semicircular canals detect rotation; otolith organs detect linear acceleration and gravity.

Visible light spectrum range for humans.

Approximately 400–700 nm wavelengths.

Rod vs. cone function.

Rods = low-light, monochrome vision; cones = daylight, color vision.