Cancer, HIV/AIDS, and Immune & Immune-Related Disorders – Review Flashcards

One hundred Q&A flashcards summarizing essential concepts on cancer, HIV/AIDS, hypersensitivity, autoimmune disorders, and general immune function for exam review.

What is considered the most preventable cause of death in the United States?

Smoking

Which demographic group has the highest overall cancer morbidity and mortality?

African-American populations (with males higher than females overall)

Which key feature distinguishes a malignant tumor from a benign tumor?

It invades and destroys surrounding tissue.

In tumor classification, what does the term “grade” refer to?

The degree of differentiation of the tumor cells.

Name the four main routes of cancer metastasis.

Lymphatic spread, vascular spread, implantation, and seeding.

What does Stage IV cancer indicate?

Malignant cells have metastasized to distant parts of the body.

List the four most common sites of cancer metastasis.

Liver, bone, brain, and lungs.

Which non-modifiable risk factor is strongly associated with cancer?

Age

In the CAUTION warning signs, what does the letter “N” stand for?

Nagging cough or hoarseness that will not go away.

A lighted fiber-optic scope used to examine hollow organs is called what?

Endoscopy

Why must vesicant chemotherapeutic drugs be carefully monitored during IV infusion?

Extravasation can cause severe tissue damage, ischemia, and necrosis.

What is the purpose of the tiny tattoo placed on a patient receiving external beam radiation?

To mark the exact site for radiation alignment at each treatment.

Which side effect is most likely to occur within the first 24 hours of chemotherapy?

Nausea and vomiting

What visitor precaution is required for a patient with internal (sealed-source) radiation?

Visitors should remain at least six feet away from the patient.

What is the medical term for loss of appetite common in cancer therapy?

Anorexia

Bone-marrow suppression increases the risk for which four problems?

Anemia, thrombocytopenia, leukopenia, and infection.

Which therapy uses biologic response modifiers to stimulate the body’s own immune system against cancer?

Immunotherapy with biologic response modifiers (BRMs).

What major cardiovascular side effect is associated with angiogenesis inhibitors?

Hypertension

What is an early sign of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?

Bruising or oozing from gums, IV sites, or injuries.

What nursing intervention is crucial when caring for a patient with DIC?

Provide very gentle care and avoid trauma.

Multiple myeloma, metastatic bone cancer, and prolonged immobility place a patient at risk for which electrolyte imbalance?

Hypercalcemia

Name two common psychosocial alterations seen in cancer patients.

Fear of the unknown and anticipatory grieving (also denial, social isolation).

Give two non-pharmacologic measures that can help relieve cancer pain.

Ice or heat application, dimming lights, or massage.

What is the goal of palliative cancer surgery?

To relieve symptoms and decrease complications, not to cure.

Why are chemotherapy or radiation sometimes given before cancer surgery?

To shrink the tumor and make surgical removal easier.

Define AIDS in one sentence.

AIDS is the stage of HIV infection in which the immune system is severely incapacitated and cannot fight opportunistic infections.

Which viral enzyme converts HIV RNA into DNA inside the host cell?

Reverse transcriptase

A CD4 count below what threshold indicates progression to AIDS?

200 cells/mm³ (e.g., 180 cells/mm³ signifies AIDS).

List three body fluids that can transmit HIV.

Blood, vaginal secretions, and breast milk (also semen, amniotic fluid).

What HIV risk factor is particularly noted in many older adults?

Unsafe sex practices due to limited sex education in their youth.

Which test detects the HIV p24 antigen for early diagnosis?

Combined antibody/p24 antigen test (p24 antigen test).

Presence of Category C conditions (e.g., esophageal candidiasis) signifies what, regardless of CD4 count?

A diagnosis of AIDS.

What is the standard multi-drug regimen used to treat HIV?

Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy (HAART).

Accumulation of abdominal and dorsocervical fat in HIV therapy is called what?

Lipodystrophy

The two best strategies to prevent HIV transmission are what?

Avoid unprotected sex and do not share IV needles.

Which laboratory value is used to monitor HAART effectiveness?

Viral load (amount of circulating virus).

Shortness of breath, non-productive cough, rales, and fever in an AIDS patient suggest which infection?

Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia

Thick white plaques with hair-like projections on the tongue that cannot be scraped off indicate what?

Oral hairy leukoplakia

Purplish-brown skin lesions progressing up the legs are characteristic of what AIDS-related malignancy?

Kaposi’s sarcoma

Early signs such as forgetfulness, apathy, and poor concentration in HIV reflect which CNS complication?

AIDS dementia

Maintaining strict patient confidentiality primarily helps prevent which psychosocial issue in HIV/AIDS?

Social isolation due to stigma

State two interventions to reduce mother-to-child HIV transmission.

Maternal antiretroviral therapy, elective C-section, and infant ARV prophylaxis (no breastfeeding).

Standard precautions assume what about all bodily fluids?

All bodily fluids are potentially contaminated.

Before discussing HIV medicines, what should the nurse ask if a family member is present?

“Would you like your family member to stay or leave during this discussion?”

How many U.S. states legally require notifying past partners after an HIV diagnosis?

Two states

Allergic rhinitis from dust mites is an example of which hypersensitivity type?

Type I (immediate) hypersensitivity

What is the first priority in treating anaphylaxis?

Maintain the airway.

Which drug is first-line for anaphylaxis because it bronchodilates and vasoconstricts?

Epinephrine

Patients allergic to penicillins often show cross-reactivity to which antibiotic class?

Cephalosporins

Hives and wheezing within one hour of a transfusion indicate what reaction type?

Allergic urticaria transfusion reaction

What is the nurse’s immediate action for any suspected transfusion reaction?

Stop the blood transfusion.

Which cells mediate a Type IV delayed hypersensitivity response?

Sensitized T cells and macrophages

Transplant rejection occurs because the recipient’s immune system views the organ as what?

Foreign tissue

After splenectomy, patients are at high risk for which specific infection?

Pneumococcal infections

Drooping of one or both eyelids in Myasthenia Gravis is called what?

Ptosis

Marked improvement after Tensilon administration suggests which diagnosis?

Myasthenia Gravis

Which life-threatening complication is Myasthenia Gravis patients most prone to?

Aspiration pneumonia (and respiratory arrest)

Deviation of fingers toward the ulnar side in RA is called what?

Ulnar drift

Which blood test is typically positive in both RA and SLE?

Antinuclear antibody (ANA) test

Name four common triggers that can worsen lupus symptoms.

UV exposure, stress, certain medications, infections, and genetic factors.

What facial rash affecting cheeks and nasal bridge is a hallmark of lupus?

Malar (butterfly) rash

What general diet is recommended for patients with lupus?

High in protein, vitamins, and iron.

Which three common medical products may contain latex?

Surgical gloves, urinary catheters, and silk tape.

What emergency device should all patients with severe allergies carry?

An epinephrine auto-injector (EpiPen).

Why are anticholinesterase drugs prescribed in Myasthenia Gravis?

They increase available acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction.

What is the primary function of the immune system?

To defend the body against infection and foreign pathogens.

The immune system’s ability to recognize and spare its own tissues is called what?

Tolerance (self-recognition).

What structures form the first line of innate immune defense?

Skin and mucous membranes.

How does fever assist in fighting infection?

By raising body temperature to levels where microbes cannot survive.

Which primary organ produces white blood cells and matures B cells?

Bone marrow

What is the main early-life function of the thymus gland?

Maturation of T lymphocytes.

Which organ filters blood and destroys trapped microorganisms with WBCs?

The spleen

Which white blood cell type is the most numerous and specializes in phagocytosis?

Neutrophils

Which lymphocyte produces antibodies in humoral immunity?

B cells

A foreign substance that elicits an immune response is called what?

An antigen

Which T-cell subtype activates both B cells and cytotoxic T cells?

Helper T cells

Immunity obtained through vaccination is best described as which three types?

Acquired, active, and humoral (antibody-mediated).

Which diagnostic imaging of lymph channels requires knowing iodine or shellfish allergy?

Lymphangiography

An absolute neutrophil count of 1200 indicates what?

Increased risk for infection (below the normal 1500–8000 range).

Transfer of maternal antibodies to an infant through breast milk is what type of immunity?

Passive acquired humoral immunity

Immunity present at birth and immediately functional is called what?

Natural (innate) immunity

Name one piece of subjective data important in an immune assessment.

History of persistent infections (others: bleeding time, fatigue, allergies, occupation).

The ESR test reflects the acute phase of which process?

Inflammation or infection

A bone-marrow biopsy is indicated when which routine lab is abnormal and cancer is suspected?

Complete Blood Count (CBC)

Sneezing, clear nasal discharge, and itchy eyes after pollen exposure indicate what condition?

Allergic rhinitis (hay fever)

Periodic itchy red wheals on the trunk after detergent change suggest what?

Urticaria (hives)

Vasoconstriction has what direct effect on blood pressure?

It increases blood pressure.

What is the key functional difference between humoral and cell-mediated immunity?

Humoral immunity involves antibodies; cell-mediated immunity does not.

How do lymph nodes typically feel during an active infection?

Swollen and tender.

Which granulocytes release histamine and leukotrienes to initiate inflammation in allergies?

Basophils

After phagocytosis, macrophages present antigen fragments to which cells?

T cells

What fundamental problem exists in all autoimmune disorders?

The immune system attacks the body’s own cells, mistaking them for foreign.

Rheumatoid arthritis can affect which body systems besides joints?

Potentially any organ (heart, lungs, kidneys, eyes, vessels, etc.).

Radiation delivered from a machine outside the body is called what?

External beam radiation therapy

List two serious side effects possible with biologic response modifiers (BRMs).

Flu-like symptoms and hypotension (also edema, anaphylaxis, ↑ capillary permeability).

Name two key indicators the nurse monitors for renal dysfunction during chemotherapy.

Intake/output and BUN/creatinine levels (also daily weight, edema).

What is the most critical infection-prevention measure for a neutropenic patient?

Meticulous hand-washing and equipment sanitization.

What is the primary goal of hospice care for terminal cancer patients?

To provide physical, emotional, and spiritual comfort and support.

During immune functional assessment, asking a patient about self-image and favorite activities evaluates what?

Self-concept and coping style.

Why does a familiar antigen provoke a faster immune response on re-exposure?

Memory cells are activated, producing a rapid, effective reaction.