Exam 2 (with Review Quizzes, Study Tips, & Quiz 2 study tips)

True or False:

Animals affected by Cryptosporidia parvum can only shed the organism if they are still having diarrhea. Once they have stopped having diarrhea, they can no longer shed the organism.

false

True or False:

Giardia causes diarrhea in all species that are affected by it.

true

Which strain of salmonella is predominately associated with enteritis?

S. typimurium

What is the word used to describe a dermatophyte that can be transmitted from animal to man?

Zoophilic

Human cases of leptospirosis are often associated with exposure to what?

Contaminated water

True or False:

Coxiella burnetii can be found in milk. This is a reason why it is important to pasteurize milk.

true

All strains of Brucellosis are zoonotic except....

B. ovis

Brucella abortus can be transmitted by contact with an infected animal's...

*separate answers with a comma

milk, aborted fetus, vaginal discharge, placenta

What is the name for the chronic, recurrent febrile illness that Brucellosis causes in people?

Undulant fever (Undulating fever)

What is the most common disease form of Anthrax in people?

Cutaneous (wool sorters disease)

Majority of bovine lameness is in the... BE AS SPECIFIC AS POSSIBLE!!!

The lateral claw of the hind feet

laminitis where the corium swells within the hoof which becomes very painful; there are no obvious changes to the hoof wall or sole; the foot is warm and digital pulses are prominent...

Acute Laminitis

laminitis where there is visible deformity of the hoof wall

chronic laminitis

What is the first clinical sign of a sole ulcer?

sole hemorrhage

True or False:

Sole abscesses are a primary condition and are not usually due to any other complication.

false

This condition commonly affects one or both lateral hind claws. It is caused by hemorrhage into or separation of the white line. Heavy, high-yielding dairy cattle kept under confined conditions are at a higher risk for the development of this.

White line disease

This is a mild inflammatory condition of the interdigital skin. It is seen most often when cattle are housed where they are continuously exposed to moisture and manure slurries. The lesions are painful to the touch, but usually do not cause any lameness.

Interdigital dermatitis

This is a highly contagious, erosive, and proliferative infection of the epidermis proximal to the skin-horn junction in the flexor region of the interdigital space. It can be spread by newly acquired animals, contaminated boots, or hoof trimming equipment. Lameness is seen with this.

digital dermatitis

This is the result of bacteria being sequestered in a joint. It causes severe lameness and distension of the joint. The affected joints are visibly swollen and warm to the touch.

septic arthritis

What is the name of the bacteria that is involved with interdigital dermatitis?

Fusobacterium necrophorum

After a digit amputation, what is the herd retention time for that animal?

less than a year

What is the name of the guide that we use to determine which animals need to be treated for parasites? (by using it appropriately, it will decrease the rate of the development of anthelmintic resistance).

FAMACHA Chart

What is the term given to a decline in the efficacy of an anthelmintic against a population of parasites that is generally susceptible to that drug.

Anthelmintic Resistance

What is the causative agent for Foot Scald/ Strawberry Foot Rot in small ruminants?

Dermatophilus congolensis

True or False:

Foot rot in sheep is infectious. Animal that are infected should be separated. They are treated by using foot baths with 10% zinc sulfate plus systemic antibiotics.

True

What is the causative agent for Foot Rot in sheep?

Dichelobacter nodosus

What is the causative agent for Johnes Disease?

Mycobacterium avium subspecies paratuberculosis

This condition results when a piece of metal pierces the reticulum and leads to a localized peritonitis.

traumatic reticulitis

This condition results from a piece of metal piercing through the diaphragm and into the pericardium.

traumatic pericarditis

A cow suffering from this condition will have a papple shaped appearance from the rear. With this condition, ingesta does not pass through one or more of the forestomachs due to a dysfunction in rumen motility.

Vagal Indigestion (Reticulo-omasal transport).

This disease is caused by cattle swallowing a sharp piece or metal. What is is called? (lay term)

Hardware disease

True or False:

When dealing with pasture bloat, can you relieve the issue with with stomach tubes or trocars?

false

True or False:

Neonates with GI issues tend to be more alkalotic, while adults with GI issues tend to be more acidotic.

false

What are the 4 viruses that contribute to the bovine respiratory disease complex?

(DON'T PUT ABBREVIATIONS)

*separate answers with a comma

Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis, Parainfluenza 3 Virus, Bovine Respiratory Syncitial Virus, Bovine Viral Diarrhea Virus

This respiratory virus can cause a viral pneumonia on its own. It is more common in calves 3-12 months old.

Bovine Respiratory Snycytial Virus

This respiratory virus can cause immunosuppression, EED, abortion, fetal mummification, and can cause persistently infected calves.

Bovine Viral Diarrhea Virus

Calves that are persistently infected due to Bovine Viral Diarrhea infection inutero were infected between _________________ days gestation.

45-125

True or False:

We use an ear notch test to detect BVDV in calves.

true

What is the period of time between the last treatment and when meat, milk, or eggs may be marketed called?

Withdrawal time

This swine respiratory condition is caused by Bordetella bronchiseptica &/or Pasturella multocida. Pigs affected have deviated snouts and epistaxis. It is commonly seen post weaning.

Atrophic rhinitis

This swine respiratory condition is causes an acute, severe pneumonia. Pigs affected have "thumps" and blue ears. Acute death is also associated with this. It is commonly seen in larger pigs.

Actinobacillus pleuropneumonia

This swine respiratory condition is the most common cause of chronic pneumonia. Pigs affected usually don't die, but they don't grow either. It is commonly seen in late-nursery to early finishing areas. Lincomycin is the drug of choice for this.

Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae

This swine respiratory disease was first known as "mystery swine disease". It is classified as the BVD of swine. Clinical problems appear and disappear without logic. Clinical signs can very drastically from one herd to another. It does cause reproductive failure and severe enzootic pneumonia.

Porcine Respiratory and Reproductive Syndrome

What is the name of the only FDA-approved antibiotic used to treat caprine pneumonia?

Ceftiofur (Naxcel)

When talking about GI issues in cattle, adults tend to have more (diarrhea/forestomach) _______________ problems.

*Choose the correct one

forestomach

When talking about GI issues in cattle, neonates tend to have more (diarrhea/forestomach) _____________ problems.

*Choose the correct one

diarrhea

A calf that is 2 weeks old should be fed _________% of its body weight daily.

Correct!

8

True or False:

Calves born in the last week of calving season have the lowest death rate.

False

What is the term given to excess gas accumulation in the rumen?

Bloat

True or False:

Pre-dipping is done to control contagious pathogens, and post-dipping is done to control environmental pathogens.

false

What type of heart failure is associated with intermandibular and brisket edema?

Right sided heart failure

What is the most common congenital heart defect of cattle?

Ventricular Septal Defect

What is the most common form of valvular disease in cattle?

Bacterial Endocarditis

What is the normal pH range for milk?

6.5-6.8

What is the legal limit of somatic cells in the bulk tank?

750,000 cell/ml

Tell me what the CMT (California mastitis test) does.

Estimates the number of white blood cells (somatic cells) in the milk

True or False:

When preparing an udder and collecting milk samples, you should prep the udder by cleaning the far teats then the near teats and obtain your sample by collecting from the near teats first then the far teats.

true

In this form of mastitis, there is dysfunction of the mammary gland that results in inflammation, abnormal milk, an ill cow, and production losses.

clinical mastitis

In this type of mastitis, there is inflammation of the mammary gland, loss in production, loss in milk quality, increase in somatic cells, and no clinical signs.

subclinical mastitis

With contagious mastitis, the primary source of infection is...

the mammary gland of other cows

With environmental mastitis, the primary source of infection is...

the environment

This contagious mastitis pathogen lives in the infected quarter, respiratory tract, and reproductive tract. It can cause joint problems and lameness issues, and it is unresponsive to treatment. If this pathogen is found in a milk culture, the animal is culled.

Mycoplasma bovis

What are the contagious mastitis pathogens?

*separate answers with a comma

Staphylococcus aureus, Mycoplasma, Streptococcus agalactiae

What is the meat withdrawal time for phenylbutazone?

21 days

What is the milk withdrawal time for phenylbutazone?

120 hours

Which drug has a milk withdrawal time of 120 hours and a meat withdrawal time of 21 days?

Phenylbutazone

What is the meat withdrawal time of banamine?

4 days

What is the milk withdrawal time of banamine?

72 hours

Which drug has a meat withdrawal time of 4 days and a milk withdrawal time of 72 hours?

banamine

What is the meat withdrawal time of oxytetracycline?

28 days

What is the milk withdrawal time for oxytetracycline?

96 hours

Which drug has a milk withdrawal time of 96 hours and a meat withdrawal time of 28 days?

oxytetracycline

What is the meat withdrawal time for Naxcel?

4 days

What is the meat withdrawal time for excede?

13 days

Which drug has a meat withdrawal time from 4-14 days and no milk withdrawal time?

ceftiofur

What is the meat withdrawal time for penicillan in cattle?

10-30 days (dose dependent)

What is the meat withdrawal time for penicillin in sheep?

9 days

What is the meat withdrawal time for penicillin in pigs?

7 days

What is the meat withdrawal time for Benzathine penicillin G?

30 days

What is the meat withdrawal time for Tulathromycin?

18 days

What is the meat withdrawal time for Tylosin?

21 days

What is the meat withdrawal time for spectinomycin?

11 days

What is the meat withdrawal time for sulfadimethoxine?

5 days

What is the meat withdrawal time for Baytril?

28 days

What is the meat withdrawal time for lincomycin?

48 hrs

Which drug has a meat withdrawal time of 28 days, but no milk withdrawal time?

baytril

Which drug is used to treat swine and has a meat withdrawal time of 48 hours?

Lincomycin

What is the meat withdrawal time for ivermectin?

35 days

Bovine lameness

-90% of bovine lameness is in the hindfoot lateral claw

Sole lesions

Due to trauma, abnormal growth/wear and/or nutritional

Heel erosions

most likely due to bacterial agents

Interdigital lesions

due to bacterial agents or trauma

Wall lesions

Due to trauma, abnormal growth or wear and or nutritional aspects

Laminitis

-result of the disturbance of the corium of the claw

-most common noninfectious door condition in cows

-3 different forms: acute, subacute, and chronic

Treatment for acute laminitis

Pain meds(Flunixin meglumine-Banamine) and cold water hydrotherapy

Treatment for chronic laminitis

corrective foot trimming

What is the first clinical sign of a sole ulcer?

sole hemorrhage

Sole ulcers

-full thickness break in sole that exposes the corium

-can be found at the axial heel sole junction, toe, or heel

What is the treatment for sole ulcers?

relieve all weight from affected claw with wooden block, removing necrotic tissue and prescribing pain relief and healing aids such as antibiotic dressings (oxytetracycline)

What is the treatment for sole abscess?

Remove all loose horn around the abscess and put a block on hoof