Pharma Compre Pics

1. True regarding poison     A. Any substance that has the capacity to harm a living organism     B. Each drug in the pharmacopeia is a potential poison     C. The dose of a substance determines that the thing is a poison     D. All are true

A. Any substance that has the capacity to harm a living organism

2. Quantal dose-response relationship     A. An all or none dose-response     B. Done by plotting the magnitude of response against increasing doses of a drug     C. The curve can be described as a rectangular hyperbola     D. Potency and efficacy can be determined using it

A. An all or none dose-response

3. This identifies the margin of safety of the medication     A. Therapeutic index     B. Median lethal dose     C. Median effective dose     D. Maximum effect

A. Therapeutic index

4. The substance most frequently involved in human poisoning exposure     A. Personal care products     B. Cleaning agents     C. Analgesics     D. Antidepressants

B. Cleaning agents

5. Ingesting larger than therapeutic doses of a pharmaceutical may     A. Prolong its absorption     B. Alter its protein binding     C. Alter apparent volume of distribution     D. All

D. All

6. Glutathione depletion that leads to the finding of hepatic necrosis is an example of a?     A. Pharmacological toxicity     B. Pathological toxicity     C. Genotoxic effect     D. Allergic effect

B. Pathological toxicity

7. This type of reaction can result from genetic polymorphisms that cause individual differences in drug pharmacokinetics, pharmacodynamic factors, or variability in expression of enzyme activity     A. Delayed hypersensitivity reaction     B. Arthrus reaction     C. Idiosyncratic reaction     D. Cytotoxic reaction

C. Idiosyncratic reaction

8. Which phase of the clinical trial that the therapeutic toxicity profile of a drug becomes fully appreciated?     A. Phase 1     B. Phase 2     C. Phase 3     D. Post-marketing surveillance

C. Phase 3

9. Intentional overdose with pharmaceuticals is most common in     A. Ages 1-5 years     B. Adolescence     C. Elderly     D. B and C

B. Adolescence

10. An example of a long-term system to reduce medical error     A. Have pharmacies prepare intravenous solutions     B. Computerized medication tracking     C. Improve medication administration education for clinicians     D. Educate patients about the safe and accurate use of medications

D. Educate patients about the safe and accurate use of medications

11. True regarding poisoning prevention in the home     A. Active prevention requires sustained adaptation to be successful     B. Passive prevention strategies are the most effective     C. The incidence of poisoning in children has decreased dramatically over the past four decades     D. All

A. Active prevention requires sustained adaptation to be successful

12. In the treatment of acute poisoning, the 1st goal is     A. To maintain vital physiological functions from impairment     B. To keep the concentration of poison in tissues as low as possible     C. To combat the toxicological effects of the poison at the effector sites     D. To identify the poison involved

A. To maintain vital physiological functions from impairment

13. The first step in preventing absorption of poison is to stop any ongoing exposure; which is true regarding GI decontamination?     A. Copper sulfate or apomorphine are safe to use     B. A randomized trial of gastric emptying for poisoned patients did show improvement in clinical outcome     C. The American Academy of Pediatrics no longer recommends syrup of ipecac as part of its childhood injury prevention program     D. B and C only

D. B and C only

14. The most common adsorbent used in the treatment of acute drug overdose     A. Syrup of ipecac     B. Lomotil     C. Besacodil     D. Activated charcoal

D. Activated charcoal

15. What can be done to decontaminate “bodypackers” with intestinal packets of illicit drugs?     A. Gastric lavage     B. Induce vomiting with syrup of ipecac     C. Whole body irrigation     D. Give sorbitol

C. Whole body irrigation

16. Groups of physical signs and symptoms associated with specific poisoning syndromes     A. Toxidromes     B. Poisodromes     C. Syndromes     D. Andromes

A. Toxidromes

17. The first line of treatment for moderately severe salicylate poisoning that does not meet criteria for hemodialysis     A. Multiple doses of activated charcoal     B. Gastric lavage     C. Urinary alkalinization     D. Whole bowel irrigation

A. Multiple doses of activated charcoal

18. The ideal drug amenable to removal by hemodialysis     A. Has high molecular weight     B. Has low volume of distribution     C. Has low solubility in water     D. Has maximal protein binding

B. Has low volume of distribution

19. True regarding antidotes     A. Many drugs used in the supportive care of a poisoned patient may be considered nonspecific functional antidotes     B. Specific antidotes are commonly needed     C. There is an antidote for every poison     D. B and C only

A. Many drugs used in the supportive care of a poisoned patient may be considered nonspecific functional antidotes

20. The antidote for opioids     A. N-acetyl-L-cysteine     B. Leucovorin     C. Flumazenil     D. Naloxone HCl

D. Naloxone HCl

21. A 78-year-old woman was diagnosed of overdose toxicity. Symptoms include confusion, hyperventilation, vomiting, and cognitive decline. ABG lab sample was pH = 4.5. For full decontamination by forced diuresis, the best agent to give to neutralize the poison is:     A. CaCO3     B. NH4Cl     C. NaHCO3     D. Na2SO4

C. NaHCO3

22. A 40-year-old patient is agitated, unsteady gait, difficult speaking and swallowing, blurred vision with marked secretion of tears. This is due to anti-ACh toxicity. The DOC antidote is:     A. Scopolamine     B. Atropine     C. Neostigmine     D. Pilocarpine

C. Neostigmine

23. The most effective treatment to stop smoking at present is:     A. Vaping     B. Nicotine patch     C. Varenicline     D. Bupropion

D. Bupropion

24. Fluid accumulation as ascites and pleurisy effect on tissue Vd is:     A. Decrease     B. Increase     C. Normal     D. No effect

B. Increase

25. Anti-ACh used in terrorism and chemical warfare produce these CNS involvements, EXCEPT:     A. Convulsions     B. Coma     C. Ataxia     D. Cognitive disturbances

B. Coma

26. Nitric oxide is a diatomic free radical consisting of two atoms of nitrogen and one atom of oxygen.     A. True     B. False

B. False

27. Nitric oxide is lipid soluble and very small for easy passage between cell membranes.     A. True     B. False

A. True

28. NOS I is found mostly in nucleated and independent of iCa++.     A. True     B. False

B. False

29. NOS III is present in vascular endothelial cells and Ca++ dependent.     A. True     B. False

A. True

30. During O2 delivery, nitric oxide locally dilates blood vessels to aid in gas exchange.     A. True     B. False

A. True

31. A 60-year-old male, diabetic and hypertensive came in the ER due to chest heaviness with shortness of breath. Patient was initially given a nitrate sublingual by his niece at home, which afforded temporary relief. What would be that drug?     A. Nitroglycerin     B. Isosorbide dinitrate     C. Isosorbide mononitrate     D. Clonidine

A. Nitroglycerin

32. A 42-year-old female, recently discharged from the hospital due to congestive heart failure. Patient also had history of hypokalemia even during admission. Without contraindication, what would be the best diuretic option to this patient?     A. Furosemide     B. Hydrochlorothiazide     C. Spironolactone     D. All of the above

C. Spironolactone

33. True of amiodarone, EXCEPT     A. Class 3 anti-arrhythmic drug     B. Available for intravenous use only     C. Causes prolonged QT interval on ECG     D. Precaution to patients with thyroid problem

B. Available for intravenous use only

34. A 51-year-old male had recent myocardial infarction, home medications given were Aspirin, Clopidogrel, Captopril, Isosorbide Mononitrate, Amlodipine, and Atorvastatin high dose. On follow-up, patient complains of coughing episodes. Which drug is the probable reason?     A. Atorvastatin     B. Amlodipine     C. Captopril     D. Clopidogrel

C. Captopril

35. Class of anti-arrhythmic drug that blocks sodium channel and prolongs the action potential duration     A. Class 1A     B. Class 1B     C. Class 1C     D. Class 1D

A. Class 1A

36. Anti-arrhythmic drug with shortest half-life     A. Adenosine     B. Amiodarone     C. Verapamil     D. Quinidine

A. Adenosine

37. The most commonly used diuretic for congestive heart failure     A. Spironolactone     B. Eplerenone     C. Hydrochlorothiazide     D. Furosemide

D. Furosemide

38. Heart failure drugs without positive inotropic effects, EXCEPT     A. Dobutamine     B. Furosemide     C. Captopril     D. Carvedilol

A. Dobutamine

39. Effects of Digoxin, EXCEPT     A. Decrease intracellular sodium     B. Reduction of calcium expulsion     C. Delayed after depolarization     D. None of the above

A. Decrease intracellular sodium

40. Consequence of giving beta blockers to patient with angina pectoris     A. Tachycardia     B. Hypotension     C. Increase myocardial oxygen requirement     D. Increase contractility

B. Hypotension

41. Which is the most effective drug to increase HDL?     A. Niacin     B. Atorvastatin     C. Fenofibrate     D. Fish-oil

A. Niacin

42. Which HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor is hydrophilic?     A. Pravastatin     B. Simvastatin     C. Niacin     D. Ezetimibe

A. Pravastatin

43. What is the most common complaint of patient taking high dose of statins?     A. Chest pain     B. Myalgia     C. Cough     D. Blurring of vision

B. Myalgia

44. Which is the most common side effect of patients taking Gemfibrozil?     A. Abdominal bloatedness     B. Acid peptic ulcer disease     C. Diarrhea     D. Formation of gallstones

A. Abdominal bloatedness

45. Statins are mostly excreted in the     A. Bile     B. Kidney     C. Liver     D. Urine

C. Liver

46. The rate of red blood cell production is controlled by:     A. Erythropoietin     B. Folic acid     C. Iron     D. Vitamin B12

A. Erythropoietin

47. Epogen would be the drug of choice:     A. For acute blood loss during surgery     B. For replacement of blood from traumatic injury     C. For the treatment of anemia associated with renal failure     D. For the treatment of anemia during lactation

C. For the treatment of anemia associated with renal failure

48. A patient with anemia who is given iron salts could expect to show a therapeutic increase in hematocrit:     A. Within 72 hours     B. Within 1 to 2 weeks     C. Within 2 to 3 weeks     D. Within 6 to 10 months

C. Within 2 to 3 weeks

49. Iron is not absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract if it is taken with:     A. Anticoagulants     B. Any other drugs     C. Dairy products     D. Proteins

D. Proteins

50. A patient with pernicious anemia would be advised to take vitamin B12:     A. Intramuscularly every 5 to 10 days     B. Orally at bedtime     C. Orally with breakfast     D. Subcutaneously every day

A. Intramuscularly every 5 to 10 days

51. Acetaminophen has been used as a safe and effective analgesic/antipyretic agent for over 80 years. The primary toxicity leading to death from an acetaminophen overdose is:     A. Papillary necrosis and chronic interstitial nephritis     B. Pancytopenia     C. Hepatocellular necrosis     D. Myocarditis

C. Hepatocellular necrosis

52. The pharmacologic effects of morphine include all EXCEPT:     A. Behavioral changes     B. Miosis     C. Respiratory depression     D. Diarrhea

D. Diarrhea

53. The analgesic most apt to produce dysphoria:     A. Morphine     B. Meperidine     C. Methadone     D. Codeine

A. Morphine

54. Morphine affects the eye by:     A. Producing miosis through an action on the oculomotor nerve     B. Producing mydriasis through an action on the sympathetic system     C. Decreasing pupillary responses to light     D. Directly acting on the smooth muscles of the iris

A. Producing miosis through an action on the oculomotor nerve

55. Many commonly utilized medications are subject to abuse. Analgesic nephropathy has been associated with:     A. Prolonged abuse of phenacetin     B. Prolonged abuse of phenacetin-aspirin combinations     C. Acetaminophen derived from phenacetin     D. All of the above are correct

D. All of the above are correct

56. The most common type of depression seen clinically in medical practice is:     A. MDD     B. GAD     C. PTSD     D. PMDD

A. MDD

57. DOC for MDD is:     A. SSRI’s     B. SSNRI’s     C. Tricyclics     D. 5-HT2 modulators

A. SSRI’s

58. DOC for OCD/obsession-compulsion is:     A. SSRI’s     B. SSNRI’s     C. Tricyclics     D. Tetracyclics

C. Tricyclics

59. SSRI’s + MAOI’s when combined in the treatment can produce common and severe ADR which is:     A. Hypertensive crisis     B. NMS     C. Malignant hyperthermia     D. Anorgasmia

C. Malignant hyperthermia

60. DOC for severe pain disorders as fibromyalgia in RP is:     A. SSRI’s     B. SSNRI’s     C. TCA’s     D. Unicyclics

B. SSNRI’s

61. Anorgasmia is the most common sexual disorder ADR of this agent:     A. SSRI’s     B. SSNRI’s     C. MAOI’s     D. 5-HT2 modulators

A. SSRI’s

62. Anti-depressants teratogenicity is:     A. Common     B. Not common     C. Rare     D. Doubtful

B. Not common

63. Common overdose toxicity of most anti-depressants is:     A. Arrhythmia     B. Sexual disorders     C. Suicide     D. Respiratory depression

C. Suicide

64. DOC for cessation of cigar and cigarette smoking is:     A. TCA’s     B. Tetracyclics     C. Unicyclics     D. Anti-5-HT2

C. Unicyclics

65. SS is/are precipitated by the following drugs, EXCEPT:     A. Tramadol     B. St. John’s wort     C. Linezolid     D. Halothane

D. Halothane

66. DOC for treatment of SS is:     A. Chlorpromazine     B. Diazepam     C. Bromocriptine     D. Cyproheptadine

D. Cyproheptadine

67. Diffuse Lewy body lesion is diagnostic of this abnormal motor movement disease:     A. Huntington’s     B. Sydenham’s     C. Parkinson’s     D. Tics

C. Parkinson’s

68. Etiology/ies of drug-induced classic parkinsonism, EXCEPT:     A. Metoclopramide     B. Lorazepam     C. Reserpine     D. Meperidine

B. Lorazepam

69. Lesion seen in the subthalamic nuclei is this motor disease:     A. Dystonia     B. Hemiballismus     C. Tics     D. Wilson’s

B. Hemiballismus

70. DOC for restless leg syndrome is:     A. Topiramate     B. Valproate Na     C. Pramipexole     D. Bromocriptine

C. Pramipexole

71. Kayser-Fleischer’s ring in the limbus of the cornea is seen in this disease:     A. Wilson’s     B. Sydenham’s     C. Parkinson’s     D. Tourette’s

A. Wilson’s

72. DOC for Wilson’s disease is:     A. FESO4     B. ZnAc     C. AuCl     D. PbCl2

B. ZnAc

73. Clinical use/s of botulinum toxin A/B, EXCEPT:     A. Glaucoma     B. Chronic migraine     C. Cerebral palsy     D. Dystonia

A. Glaucoma

74. DOC for malignant hyperthermia is:     A. Bromocriptine     B. Dantrolene     C. Diphenhydramine     D. Diazepam

B. Dantrolene

75. A centrally acting spasmolytic, EXCEPT:     A. Tizanidine     B. Baclofen     C. Carisoprodol     D. Bot-A/B

D. Bot-A/B

76. Levodopa is used for Parkinson’s disease and the mechanism of action is:     A. Dopamine conversion in CNS     B. Dopamine inhibition     C. Dobutamine conversion     D. Dobutamine inhibition

A. Dopamine conversion in CNS

77. Pramipexole is an anti-Parkinsonism drug classified under     A. COMT inhibitors     B. MAO inhibitors     C. Antimuscarinics     D. Dopamine agonists

D. Dopamine agonists

78. Reduces metabolism of levodopa and prolongs its action by inhibiting the COMT     A. Benztropine     B. Entacapone     C. Rasagiline     D. Levodopa

B. Entacapone

79. Anti-seizure drugs with SV2A ligand mechanism of action with broad spectrum coverage     A. Levetiracetam     B. Piracetam     C. Valproate     D. Diazepam

A. Levetiracetam

80. Pregabalin, classified under Gabapentinoids, is also used in peripheral neuropathy and has the following area on mechanism of action:     A. Sodium channel blocker     B. Allosteric modulation of GABA receptors     C. Alpha-2-gamma ligand     D. Unknown

B. Allosteric modulation of GABA receptors

81. Intravenous, fourth-generation drug, broad activity with improved stability to chromosomal beta-lactamase     A. Ceftriaxone     B. Cefixime     C. Cefepime     D. Cefuroxime

C. Cefepime

82. Role of cilastatin when combined with imipenem     A. Prevent hydrolysis by renal dehydropeptidase     B. Improve penetration to CNS     C. Decrease renal toxicity of imipenem     D. Improve half-life of imipenem

A. Prevent hydrolysis by renal dehydropeptidase

83. Macrolide with longest half-life     A. Clarithromycin     B. Erythromycin     C. Vancomycin     D. Azithromycin

D. Azithromycin

84. Prevents bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the 50S ribosomal subunit, EXCEPT     A. Chloramphenicol     B. Gentamicin     C. Clindamycin     D. Quinupristin-dalfopristin

B. Gentamicin

85. Which of the following possesses hepatic and renal clearance     A. Tetracycline     B. Erythromycin     C. Azithromycin     D. Linezolid

A. Tetracycline

86. Which of the following adverse drug reaction of Gentamicin is/are true     A. Nephrotoxicity, irreversible     B. Ototoxicity, reversible     C. Neuromuscular blockade     D. All of the above

C. Neuromuscular blockade

87. Intravenous macrolide which is resistant to many enzymes that inactivate gentamicin and tobramycin     A. Tobramycin     B. Neomycin     C. Spectinomycin     D. Amikacin

D. Amikacin

88. Longest-acting sulfonamides     A. Sulfadoxine     B. Sulfisoxazole     C. Sulfamethizole     D. Sulfadiazine

A. Sulfadoxine

89. Antibacterial agents may be classified as bacteriostatic     A. Cephalexin     B. Chloramphenicol     C. Quinolones     D. Metronidazole

B. Chloramphenicol

90. All of the following are effective for gram-positive cocci, EXCEPT     A. Aminoglycosides     B. Macrolides     C. Penicillins     D. Quinolones

A. Aminoglycosides

91. True of metronidazole, EXCEPT     A. IV preparation is preferred and can be readily absorbed and permeate all tissues by simple diffusion     B. Intracellular concentrations rapidly approach extracellular levels     C. Metronidazole and its metabolites are excreted mainly in the urine     D. Plasma clearance of metronidazole is decreased in patients with impaired liver function

A. IV preparation is preferred and can be readily absorbed and permeate all tissues by simple diffusion

92. Drugs that eliminate developing or dormant liver forms are called     A. Blood schizonticides     B. Tissue schizonticides     C. Gametocides     D. Chemoprophylactic agent

B. Tissue schizonticides

93. A broad-spectrum oral anthelminthic which is administered on an empty stomach when used against intraluminal parasites but with a fatty meal when used against tissue parasites     A. Ivermectin     B. Bithionol     C. Praziquantel     D. Albendazole

D. Albendazole

94. Gray Baby Syndrome is serious adverse drug reaction of this drug     A. Piperacillin     B. Chloramphenicol     C. Clindamycin     D. Cefuroxime

B. Chloramphenicol

95. Antibacterial drug that selectively inhibits bacterial dihydrofolic acid reductase, which converts dihydrofolic acid to tetrahydrofolic acid, a step leading to the synthesis of purines and ultimately to DNA     A. Sulfadiazine     B. Cilastatin     C. Clavulanic acid     D. Trimethoprim

D. Trimethoprim

96. A 35-year-old male nurse is planning to join a medical mission in an area with high prevalence of multidrug-resistant falciparum malaria. As a physician, what chemoprophylactic drug will you advise him to take?     A. Chloroquine     B. Mefloquine     C. Doxycycline     D. Artesunate

B. Mefloquine

97. A 20-year-old female sex worker was noted to have a flagellated parasite described as “smiley face.” What is the drug of choice for the said infection?     A. Primaquine     B. Tinidazole     C. Metronidazole     D. Chloroquine

C. Metronidazole

98. A 38-year-old male experienced watery diarrhea. What best antibacterial drug should be given to the patient?     A. Metronidazole     B. Chloramphenicol     C. Ciprofloxacin     D. Tetracycline

C. Ciprofloxacin

99. A 65-year-old male smoker, complaining of cough and fever, had infiltrates on the left lower lung field. Patient was advised to be admitted in a ward. What treatment regimen is appropriate?     A. IV Ceftriaxone + IV Azithromycin     B. IV Piperacillin-Tazobactam + IV Levofloxacin     C. Oral Amoxicillin + Clavulanic Acid     D. Oral Cefuroxime + Oral Azithromycin

A. IV Ceftriaxone + IV Azithromycin

100. A 47-year-old male, complaining of dysuria with whitish penile discharge. He admits to go out with a sexual worker. What is the drug of choice for the probable infection?     A. Ceftriaxone     B. Cefuroxime     C. Penicillin     D. Moxifloxacin

A. Ceftriaxone