Autonomic Pharmacology – Practice Flashcards

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A comprehensive set of question-and-answer flashcards covering the key clinical applications, mechanisms, and toxicities of autonomic drugs discussed in the lecture on autonomic pharmacology.

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40 Terms

1
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What is the primary therapeutic goal of β-adrenoceptor antagonists in ischaemic heart disease?

To reduce cardiac output and workload during each heartbeat.

2
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Which non-selective β-blocker is commonly used orally to treat IHD and hypertension?

Propranolol.

3
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Why is propranolol contraindicated in asthmatic patients?

Because its β2 antagonism can trigger bronchoconstriction and fatal bronchospasm.

4
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Which β1-selective antagonist can be used in asthmatics with heart disease to avoid bronchospasm?

Atenolol.

5
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What β2-selective agonist is inhaled as a bronchodilator for asthma?

Salbutamol.

6
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What are the characteristic airway changes during an asthma attack?

Constriction of bronchioles leading to wheezing, breathlessness, coughing, and a tight chest.

7
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Which adrenoceptor subtype mediates bronchodilation?

β2 adrenoceptors.

8
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What sympathomimetic drug is administered in anaphylactic shock to restore airway patency and blood pressure?

Adrenaline (epinephrine).

9
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List the three main cardiovascular effects of adrenaline during anaphylaxis.

Bronchodilation via β2, increased heart rate and cardiac output via β1, and peripheral vasoconstriction via α1/α2.

10
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Give three examples of indirectly acting sympathomimetic drugs that block noradrenaline re-uptake.

Cocaine, amphetamine, and tricyclic antidepressants such as amitriptyline.

11
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What phrase summarizes overall parasympathetic function?

“Rest and Digest.”

12
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Which muscarinic receptor subtype is primarily responsible for slowing heart rate?

M2 receptors.

13
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Which muscarinic receptor subtype mediates glandular secretion and smooth-muscle contraction?

M3 receptors.

14
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Name four classic effects of muscarinic stimulation on exocrine glands.

Salivation, lacrimation, sweating, and increased bronchial secretion.

15
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What natural alkaloid from Atropa belladonna is a potent muscarinic antagonist?

Atropine.

16
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List four peripheral symptoms of atropine poisoning.

Mydriasis, dry mouth, tachycardia, and hot but dry skin.

17
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Which mushroom contains muscarine, a potent muscarinic agonist?

Amanita muscaria (Fly agaric).

18
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Why can ingestion of muscarine be fatal?

Excessive parasympathetic stimulation causes severe bradycardia, bronchoconstriction, and secretions leading to cardiorespiratory failure.

19
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What muscarinic antagonist is used to treat overactive bladder and urge incontinence?

Oxybutynin.

20
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Why does oxybutynin produce side-effects such as blurred vision and dry mouth?

Because it is a non-selective M2/M3 antagonist that blocks muscarinic receptors in many tissues.

21
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Which muscarinic agonist is used topically to constrict the pupil and lower intra-ocular pressure in glaucoma?

Pilocarpine.

22
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How does pilocarpine reduce intra-ocular pressure?

It causes miosis that opens the trabecular drainage canal, increasing aqueous humour outflow.

23
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Which muscarinic antagonist is used to produce mydriasis and cycloplegia for eye examination?

Atropine (now often replaced by tropicamide).

24
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What enzyme rapidly terminates acetylcholine action at synapses?

Acetylcholinesterase (AChE).

25
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How do anticholinesterase drugs act as indirectly acting parasympathomimetics?

They inhibit AChE, elevating and prolonging ACh at muscarinic and nicotinic receptors.

26
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Name two reversible anticholinesterases and one clinical use for each.

Physostigmine – glaucoma or atropine poisoning; Neostigmine – myasthenia gravis or postoperative urinary retention.

27
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What class of compounds irreversibly inhibits AChE via phosphorylation?

Organophosphorus compounds (e.g., dyflos, sarin, VX, Novichok).

28
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List four muscarinic signs of organophosphate poisoning.

Miosis, salivation, sweating, and bradycardia.

29
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What is the first-line drug to counteract muscarinic symptoms in organophosphate poisoning?

Atropine.

30
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Which oxime can reactivate phosphorylated AChE if given promptly?

Pralidoxime.

31
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Why must pralidoxime be administered quickly after organophosphate exposure?

Because the phosphorylated AChE undergoes "aging," becoming irreversibly inactive.

32
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What nicotinic effects may appear in organophosphate poisoning?

Skeletal-muscle fasciculation and paralysis due to depolarising block.

33
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Which reversible anticholinesterase is more polar and therefore acts mainly peripherally?

Neostigmine.

34
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In cardiac tissue, which adrenoceptor subtype maintains sympathetic tone that β-blockers target?

β1 adrenoceptors.

35
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Define indirectly acting sympatholytic drugs.

Drugs that inhibit noradrenaline synthesis, storage, or release, thereby decreasing sympathetic activity.

36
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What blood pressure criterion defines Stage 2 hypertension in the lecture?

Diastolic blood pressure greater than 100 mmHg.

37
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Name two unavoidable risk factors for hypertension.

Age and genetic predisposition (sex and ethnicity are also unavoidable factors).

38
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Which sympathetic receptor subtype, when blocked, reduces heart rate and contractility?

β1 adrenoceptors.

39
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What is the primary goal when treating IHD and hypertension with β-blockers?

To decrease heart rate, cardiac output, and myocardial oxygen demand.

40
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What four lifestyle factors increase risk of coronary heart disease mentioned in the lecture?

Poor diet, physical inactivity, smoking, and excessive alcohol consumption (obesity/diabetes are related).