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Extra antigenic reactions in forward typing
Rouleaux, Group A with acquired B antigen, B(A) phenotype
group B individual who acquires reactivity with anti-A reagents in ABO red cell testing; in these individuals the B gene transfers trace amounts of the immunodominant sugar for the A antigen and the immunodominant sugar for the B antigen
B(A) Phenotype
action to take with rouleaux in forward typing
review patient history for disease
action to take with Group A with acquired B antigen in Forward typing
review patient history for transfusions
action to take with B(A) phenotype in forward typing
review patient history and test with additional monoclonal antibodies
missing reactions in forward typing
newbons
weak reactions in forward typing
ABO subgroups and Hodgkins/Leukemia patients
actions to take with newborn missing antigens in forward typing
review reverse typing
actions to take with ABO subgroups in forward typing
repeat testing with increased incubation times
mixed field in forward typing
group A,B or AB individual with transfusion of type O history
actions to take with Group A,B or AB individuals transfused with Type O
research pre-transfusion typing
extra antigens in reverse typing
ABO subgroups (group A2 with anti-A1), cold alloantibodies, cold autoantibodies and Rouleaux
action to take with group A2 with anti-A1 in reverse typing
test with dolichos bifloris
possible cold ALLOantibodies
Anti-P1, Anti-M, Anti-N, Anti-Lea and Anti-Leb
actions to take with cold alloantibodies in reverse typing
test with screening cells
actions to take with autoantibodies in reverse typing
check AC result, if positive then remove/neutralize autoantibody and test again
actions to take with Rouleaux formation in reverse typing
review patient history for multiple myeloma or Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia; re-wash cells and retest or perform saline replacement technique
missing or weak reaction in reverse typing
newborn or elderly patient
action to take when weak reaction in reverse typing due to newborn or elderly patient
increase incubation times
a crossmatch is good for
3 days
the most clinically significant reactions occur at
37 degrees with IgG antibodies
ideal sample for pretransfusion testing
EDTA
if patient armband is removed, then...
crossmatch needs to be redone
compatibility testing procedure
1. ID patient
2. Review patient history
3. ABO + Rh Typing
4. Antibody Screen ( and ID if necessary)
5. Confirm ABO + Rh of donor units
6. Serological cross match
7. Label products
reasons for positive AC
auto antibodies, passively transfused alloantibodies, medications interferring
AC should be
negative
the sample used for a crossmatch must have been drawn
within the past 3 days
donor cells + patient serum
crossmatch
limitations of crossmatch
- will not detect all antibodies
- will NOT detect ABO mix-ups
- will NOT detect Rh errors
- will NOT detect ID errors
red cells are negative and this is an error. What action must you take?
incubate
Pretransfusion testing must contain
antibody screening by antiglobulin test
In the direct antiglobulin test, the antiglobulin reagent is used to:
detect pre-existing antibodies on erythrocytes
How long must a recipient sample be kept?
7 days
In emergency situations, release
O, Rh-negative red blood cells
A mixed-field reaction at AHG may be...
an antibody such as anti-Sda
Screening cells, major crossmatch, and patient autocontrol are positive in all phases. Identify the problem.
abnormal protein or non-specific auto antibody
When may an IS (abbreviated) crossmatch be performed?
when there is a negative antibody screen and patient has no history of antibodies
What are the pretransfusion requirements for an autologous transfusion?
type and screen
The major crossmatch will detect a(n):
recipient antibody directed against antigens on the donor red cells
may cause a false-negative IAT
too heavy cell suspension
Screening cells and major crossmatch are positive on immediate spin (IS) only, and the autocontrol is negative. Identify the problem.
cold alloantibody
In the direct (DAT) and indirect (IAT) antiglobulin techniques, false-negative reactions may result if the:
addition of AHG is delayed
A unit of RBCs is issued at 9:00 AM. At 9:10 AM the unit is returned to the Blood Bank. The container has NOT been entered, but the unit has NOT been refrigerated during this time span. The best course of action for the technologist is to:
record the return and place back into inventory
AHG (Coombs) control cells:
are coated only with IgG antibody
How would autoantibodies affect compatibility testing?
the DAT would be positive
Which of the following would most likely be responsible for an incompatible major crossmatch?
A. Recipient's red cells possess a low-frequency antigen
B. Recipient's red cells are polyagglutinable
C. Anti-K antibody in serum
D. donor red cells have a positive DAT
D. donor red cells have a positive DAT
Congestive heart failure, severe headache, and/or peripheral edema occurring soon after transfusion is indicative of which type of transfusion reaction?
circulatory overload
What can be done if HDFN is caused by maternal anti-K?
Monitor the mother's antibody level
What is the mechanism for HDFN occurrence?
maternal antibodies react with fetal antigens
True or False
The following will cause a positive DAT on cord cells of a newborn infant. Immune anti-K from a K-negative mother on the cells of a K negative baby.
False
is prevented by the irradiation of blood components
graft vs. host disease
Which blood type would be the BEST choice to transfuse to an ABpos baby who has HDFN caused by anti-D?
A negative or O negative, CMV negative, less than 7 days old, negative for Hgb S
The most frequent transfusion-associated disease complication of blood transfusions is:
hepatitis
Should an A-negative woman who has just had a miscarriage receive RhIg?
YES, but only if she does not have evidence of active Anti-D
is NOT a characteristic of ABO HDFN
strongly positive DAT
An obstetric patient, 34 weeks pregnant, shows a positive antibody screen at the indirect antiglobulin phase of testing. She is group B, Rh-negative. This is her first pregnancy. She has no prior history of transfusions. What is the most likely explanation for the positive antibody screen?
She received RhIg at 28 weeks gestation
Current testing on all donor blood must include:
(serological testing for) syphillis
What should be done if a mother types as an O and the baby types as an AB?
AB baby is not possible from O mother so check samples and identification.
The principle of the Kleihauer-Betke stain is that:
Adult hemoglobin is more soluble in acid buffer than fetal hemoglobin. Fetal cells are more resistant to acid and stain darker.
How many milliliters of whole blood from an FMH is covered with a 300-mg dose of RhIG?
30 ml
Anti-E is detected in the serum of a woman in the first trimester of pregnancy. The first titer for anti-E is 32. Two weeks later, the antibody titer is 64 and then 128 after another 2 weeks. Clinically, there are beginning signs of fetal distress. What may be done?
perform plasmapheresis to remove anti-E from the mother
Irradiation of transfusion products is primarily carried out to eliminate _____________________ disease.
graft versus host disease
List at least two treatments for HDFN
phototherapy and intrauterine exchange
______________ is the plasma protein that functions to bind hemoglobin following intravascular hemolysis?
haptoglobin
Coughing, cyanosis, and difficulty breathing are symptoms of _____________ _____________ (transfusion reaction)
TRALI, anaphylactic or circulatory overload
In performing a DAT, agglutination occurs after the addition of IgG sensitized cells (check cells.) What is true of this situation?
The antiglobulin reagent was functional.
Hemoglobinuria, hypotension and generalized bleeding are symptoms of which of the following transfusion reactions?
hemolytic
What test is most commonly used to demonstrate antibodies that have become attached to a patient's red cells in vivo?
DAT
An O-negative mother with no record of any previous pregnancies gives birth to her first child, a B-positive baby. The DAT is weakly positive (+/-). The DAT negative control is negative. The antibody screen is negative. The baby appears healthy but develops mild jaundice after two days, which is treated with phototherapy. The baby goes home after 4 days in the hospital without complications. What is the most likely explanation for the weakly positive DAT?
immune anti-b from the mother
An antibody shows strong reactions in all test phases. All screen and panel cells are positive. The serum is then tested with cord cell and the reaction is negative. What antibody is suspected?
Anti-I
The ____________Blood Group System's antibodies are commonly associated with delayed HTRs?
Kidd
True or False
The following is a part of the preliminary evaluation of a transfusion reaction. Do a DAT on the post-transfusion sample
true
Which type of transfusion reaction occurs in about 1% of all transfusions, results in a temperature rise of 1oC or higher, is associated with blood component transfusion, and is not related to the patient's medical condition?
febrile, non-hemolytic
Which of the following conditions are the most serious immediate consequences of HDFN?
hyperbilirubinemia and anemia
The process of separation of an antibody from its associated antigen on the RBC is known as:
an elution
What is the cause of transfusion-induced hemosiderosis?
iron overload
What is done to prevent HDFN caused by maternal anti-K antibody formation?
monitor the mother's antibody level
In the direct antiglobulin test, the antiglobulin (AHG) reagent is used to:
detect pre-existing antibodies on erythrocytes
Four units of blood are ordered for a patient. Blood bank records are checked and indicate that 5 years ago this patient had an anti-Jkb. What is the next course of action?
Antigen type units for the Jkb antigen and only crossmatch units negative for Jkb
Listeria grows in the cold but another bacteria often associate with sepsis from a blood component might be _____________ enterocolitica.
yersinia
A trauma patient had a severe hemolytic reaction just minutes after receiving a blood transfusion. What is the most likely cause?
immediate, immunologic; ABO incompatibility
_______ is the class of immunoglobulin generally associated with hemolytic disease of the newborn?
IgG
GIve the formula from the Kleihauer-Betke test that is used to determine the volume of FMH in mL of whole blood.
cells counted/1000 or 2000 = %
% x 50 = FMH ml
What would be the result of group A blood being given to a group O patient?
acute hemolytic transfusion reaction
The most appropriate laboratory test for quick, early detection of acute hemolysis is:
visual inspection
When Warton's Jelly is contained in a cord blood sample, it may cause a(n):
incorrect cell typing results
Anti-K anti-k are usually of the ________ class of antibodies.
IgG
is destroyed by proteolytic enzymes
M
The most common antigenic phenotype for the Lutheran system is:
Lu (a-,b+)
is the most immunogenic blood group
K
characteristics that are true of all 3 of the following antibodies: anti-Fya, anti-Jka, and anti-K?
detected at IAT phase (AHG) and may cause hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN) and transfusion reactions.
Which is the class of immunoglobulin uniquely associated with hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN)?
IgG
Which system is associated with resistance to Malaria?
duffy
Unexpected antibodies formed to antigens on red cells of other humans but not on cells of the person forming the antibody are referred to as:
alloantibodies
Anti-S, Anti-s, and Anti-U are usually of the __________ class of antibodies.
IgG
Enzymes enhance the reactivity of red cell antigens with some antibodies by:
exposing additional antigen sites
The following antibody reacts optimally at WARM temperatures:
anti-jka
What is one possible genotype for a patient who develops anti-C antibody?
Rr
Which of the following phenotypes will react with Anti-f?
A. R2R2
B. R1R1
C. R1R2
D. rr
D. rr
The optimum phase to detect Kell, Kidd, and Duffy antibodies is:
AHG