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120 Terms

1
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Define a Type 1 hypervisor.

Direct hardware-level virtualization management software

2
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To verify a computer's network connection and responsiveness, which command is suitable for a network technician?

ping

3
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Which network type is used for short-distance device communication, such as connecting wireless earbuds to a smartphone?

Personal Area Network (PAN)

4
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To link multiple buildings, which network type is utilized?

Campus Area Network (CAN)

5
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In a client/server architecture, the configuration is:

Centralized, with configuration performed on a central server and disseminated to all devices

6
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In which network topology do packets navigate device-to-device until reaching their destination?

Ring

7
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A router's primary purpose in a network is:

To route data packets between multiple networks

8
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What does Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) offer consumers?

Computing resources in a virtualized form over the internet

9
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Which network type is commonly employed for device interconnection within a single building?

Local Area Network (LAN)

10
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Identify the network type connecting computer networks and LANs across broad geographical expanses.

Wide Area Network (WAN)

11
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An IP Address functions at which OSI model layer?

Network layer

12
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A network topology where all nodes are connected to a central device is known as:

Star

13
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Which cloud deployment often utilizes exclusive (non-shared) hardware?

Private Cloud

14
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To display the mapping of IP Addresses to MAC Addresses on a Windows system, which command should be used?

arp

15
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To inspect active TCP connections on a Windows PC, which command is appropriate for a network admin?

netstat

16
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Highlight a principal advantage of Software as a Service (SaaS).

No need for individual installations or updates

17
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To obtain the IP Address of a Windows machine, which command is necessary?

ipconfig

18
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To obtain a Linux machine's IP Address, which command must a network admin execute?

ifconfig

19
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What function does a firewall serve in a network?

Traffic filtration in accordance with rule sets

20
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Which cloud service model fits best for software development entities aiming to build and test applications without handling the underlying Infrastructure?

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

21
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Which command is employed for DNS resolution of a domain name to its IP address?

nslookup

22
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Compared to Twisted Pair cables, fiber optic cables offer:

Enhanced data transmission speed and extended cabling distance

23
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How is a community cloud defined?

Shared among multiple organizations with similar objectives

24
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How do OSI and TCP/IP model layer counts compare?

OSI has 7 layers; TCP/IP has 4

25
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Which network topology enables multiple data paths between any two devices to safeguard against link failure?

Mesh

26
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Within a client/server architecture, the role of client devices is to:

Request and utilize server-provided services

27
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At which OSI model layer does the MAC (Media Access Control) Address operate?

Data Link layer

28
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Put the OSI layers in the correct order starting with Layer 7 and going down.

Application, Presentation, session, transport, network, data link, physical

29
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In cloud computing, what defines the hybrid cloud model in terms of where IT assets are located?

Mix of on-premises and cloud-based services for IT assets

30
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At which OSI model layer does connection management (connection establishment, maintenance, and teardown) with remote devices occur?

Session layer

31
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For gigabit network compatibility, the minimum Ethernet cable category required is:

Category 5e

32
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Identify a type of UTP cable.

CAT6 cable

33
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For wireless LAN connectivity, which device is typically used?

WAP

34
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What distinguishes a public cloud model?

Accessible over the public internet to anyone interested in subscribing

35
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Which situation are STP cables preferred over UTP cables?

In environments with significant electromagnetic interference

36
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To follow the journey of packets from origin to destination on Windows, which command is applied?

tracert

37
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Comparing device roles in P2P and client/server networks regarding resource sharing:

In P2P, devices serve dual roles; in client/server, roles are more strictly defined

38
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In the TCP/IP model, which OSI layers are merged into the Application layer?

Session, Presentation, and Application layers

39
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The Presentation layer's role in the OSI model includes:

Formatting, encrypting, and decrypting data

40
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In Peer-to-Peer (P2P) architecture, configuration is:

Decentralized, with each device requiring individual configuration

41
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A cyber campaign aimed at stealing intellectual property from technology companies around the globe is later linked to a government's intelligence service. The attacker type is:

Nation-State

42
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An individual gains unauthorized access to government websites to protest against a new policy. This person is best described as a:

Hacktivist

43
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A hacker discovers a vulnerability in an online platform and exploits it to steal user data for personal gain. This person is categorized as a:

Black Hat Hacker

44
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What term describes an ethical hacker who uses their skills to help organizations identify and fix security vulnerabilities?

White Hat Hacker

45
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During a security audit, it's discovered that backup drives containing sensitive information are stored unsecured. What is the best practice to secure these backup drives?

Store the drives in an access controlled server room

46
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Which type of DoS attack involves sending oversized or malformed ping packets to crash the target system?

Ping of Death

47
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A teenager uses a software tool downloaded from the internet to break into a local network without fully understanding how the tool works. This individual is referred to as a:

Script Kiddie

48
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Which of the following is a common way for malware to spread?

Via email attachments

49
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What technique involves manipulating individuals to divulge confidential information or perform actions that may compromise security?

Social Engineering

50
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Ensuring that data is accurate and has not been tampered with relates to which component of the CIA triad?

Integrity

51
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What is the primary goal of phishing?

To steal sensitive information like passwords and credit card numbers

52
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An attacker performs a port scan to:

Identify vulnerabilities and plan further attacks by discovering open ports and the services or applications running on them

53
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A healthcare provider notices alterations in patient records that cannot be traced to legitimate medical consultations. This scenario indicates a violation of which CIA principle?

Integrity

54
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Data encryption at rest primarily addresses which component of the CIA triad?

Confidentiality

55
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Which risk management approach entails reducing the likelihood of a risk occurring or reducing the impact if a risk does occur by implanting some type of security technology?

Risk Mitigation

56
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A ransomware attack encrypts all the files on a company's server, making them inaccessible. Which principle of the CIA triad has been breached?

Availability

57
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What accurately defines a security Vulnerability?

A defect or imperfection in hardware, software, or infrastructure that could be exploited to undermine security.

58
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During a penetration test, the tester uses a well-known software tool to gain unauthorized access to the network. This tool is considered:

An exploit

59
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An insider in the organization has expressed dissatisfaction and is showing signs of potentially leaking sensitive data. This individual represents a:

Threat

60
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Which option below describes a decoy system that is intentionally vulnerable and filled with fabricated data to lure attackers once they breach the network?

Honeypot

61
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Which term describes a security risk that originates from individuals within an organization, such as employees or contractors?

Insider Threat

62
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In a man-in-the-middle attack, where does the attacker position themselves?

Between two communicating parties

63
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A user is setting up his new work account and sets his password to password01 so he can easily remember it. What type of vulnerability did his password choice create?

Weak password

64
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Checksums and cryptographic hashes are primarily used to ensure:

Integrity

65
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A flood in the server room causes significant damage to the hardware, leading to an unplanned downtime. Which principle of the CIA triad does this incident affect the most?

Availability

66
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A Hacker is attempting to breach the network remotely. In this scenario, the attacker would be considered what?

External threat

67
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A hacker intercepts sensitive emails between a company's executives using a compromised Wi-Fi network. This breach affects which aspect of the CIA triad?

Confidentiality

68
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A critical software application fails to start due to an expired license key, halting business operations. Which component of the CIA triad does this scenario impact?

Availability

69
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An person conducts unauthorized penetration testing on a company's system out of curiosity and later reports the findings anonymously. This behavior fits the profile of a:

Grey Hat Hacker

70
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What defines a zero-day attack?

An attack that exploits a previously unknown vulnerability in software or hardware, before the vendor has released a patch

71
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What risk management approach is demonstrated by opting to keep a network device operational despite being aware of its risk and not applying any security solutions?

Risk Acceptance

72
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What measure can employees take to protect company data on their personal devices used for work?

Enable full device encryption

73
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A hacker exploits a known flaw in an operating system that hasn't been updated in months, gaining unauthorized access. This is an example of an attack exploiting:

Unpatched software

74
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When an attacker is inserting text that is too large to fit within a region of memory, what type of attack are they trying to perform?

Buffer overflow

75
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In cybersecurity, what type of attack involves systematically trying all possible combinations of passwords from a predefined list?

Dictionary Attack

76
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Which exploit includes using breaching the network cable and using a packet sniffer to listen and record the traffic on the network?

Wiretapping

77
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Which team is responsible for defending and securing an organization's IT infrastructure and assets?

Blue Security Team

78
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A man-in-the-middle (MITM) attack allows an attacker to intercept, read, and alter communications between two parties. This compromises which aspects of the CIA triad?

Confidentiality and Integrity

79
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What risk management strategy involves eliminating the threat or vulnerability to completely eliminate the associated risk?

Risk Avoidance

80
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What term is used to describe the likelihood and impact of a threat exploiting a vulnerability?

Risk

81
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A software developer attempts to access the customer database but is denied. What part of the AAA framework is responsible for this decision?

Authorization

82
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A user must enter a security question answer to retrieve a forgotten password. This form of authentication relies on:

Something you know

83
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During a security review, the IT department uses records to track back an unauthorized data breach to a specific user's account. Which AAA service provides this capability?

Accounting

84
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In an information security policy document, what must each sub-policy clearly contain to meet compliance and clarity requirements?

The specific compliance obligations the sub-policy fulfills

85
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A university's IT department suspects a rogue access point may be operating on campus. What should they implement?

A Wireless Intrusion Prevention System (WIPS)

86
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A network firewall analyzes each packet against a set of security criteria, such as source IP Address, destination IP address, or port number before deciding to allow or block. This approach is known as:

Rule-Based Access Control

87
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What does HIPAA primarily protect?

health information

88
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What layer of protection could be considered the last line of defense in a well-implemented security in depth strategy?

Data encryption at rest

89
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Tom accesses his workplace computer using a fingerprint scan. The security system he interacts with uses which type of authentication?

Something you are

90
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A mobile banking app is designed to terminate all active sessions and require re-authentication after detecting any unauthorized access attempts. What principle does this illustrate?

Fail-safe

91
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If a company installs a state-of-the-art firewall, it is primarily engaged in:

Risk mitigation

92
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A local library has previously fallen victim to war chalking, where unauthorized individuals marked the exterior with symbols indicating an unsecured Wi-Fi network. To prevent future incidents and secure their network against unauthorized access, what should the library implement?

Implement WPA2 or WPA3 wireless encryption

93
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Which of the following is NOT typically considered a part of device hardening?

Increasing the number of open ports

94
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In a secure email exchange, if Alice wants to ensure only Bob can read her message, she should encrypt it using which key?

Bob's public key

95
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Tom is trying to access a sensitive report from his company's server. Which part of the AAA framework is responsible for verifying Tom's credentials before granting access?

Authentication

96
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In the context of IT security, separation of duties is essential because it:

Helps prevent any one individual from having too much control over a critical process

97
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A company develops an encryption software that uses a simple, well-understood algorithm instead of multiple complex algorithms. This strategy primarily enhances security through which principle?

Economy of Mechanism

98
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What distinguishes asymmetric encryption from symmetric encryption?

Employs different keys for encryption and decryption

99
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An organization requires a firewall that can allow or deny packets based on administrator-defined rules for IP addresses and protocols. Which type should they use?

Packet filtering firewall

100
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What is a primary reason attackers set up rogue access points in public places like cafes and airports?

To capture personal and financial information from unsuspecting users