AMT RMA Practice Exam 1

An example of a "ball and socket" joint is the

a. knee

b. elbow

c. hip

d. ankle

c. hip

The kidneys are located behind the

a. peritoneum

b. spinal column

c. bladder

d. sternum

a. peritoneum

During swallowing, the larynx is covered by the

a. tongue

b. epiglottis

c. soft palate

d. uvula

b. epiglottis

The protein in epidermal cells that makes the skin relatively waterproof is

a. elastin

b. keratin

c. melanin

d. collagen

b. keratin

The function of insulin is to

a. promote carbohydrate synthesis

b. convert glucose into fat

c. accelerate liver glycogenolysis

d. assist glucose into the cells

d. assist glucose into the cells

The largest glandular organ in the body is the

Select one:

a. pancreas.

b. gallbladder.

c. liver.

d. heart.

c. liver.

Which of the following constitutes 2%-4% of the WBCs?

a. Neutrophils

b. Eosinophils

c. Platelets

d. Basophils

b. Eosinophils

In what quadrant is the liver located?

a. Upper right

b. Upper left

c. Lower right

d. Lower left

a. Upper right

Where do peristaltic waves occur?

a. Large intestine

b. Esophagus

c. Small Intestine

d. Liver

b. Esophagus

Muscles are attached to bones by

a. fascia

b. tendons

c. ligaments

d. joints

b. tendons

Where do you find the pulse from the patient's dorsalis pedis artery?

a. Wrist

b. Top of foot

c. Ankle

d. Behind the knee

b. Top of foot

The body part that matches with the popliteal artery is the

a. feet.

b. leg.

c. groin.

d. neck.

b. leg.

The urinary bladder is located in the

a. abdominal cavity.

b. dorsal cavity.

c. pelvic cavity.

d. ventral cavity

c. pelvic cavity.

The destruction of all microorganisms is known as

a. disinfection.

b. sanitization.

c. Universal Precaution.

d. sterilization.

d. sterilization.

Where is chyme produced?

Select one:

a. Liver

b. Pancreas

c. Heart

d. Stomach

d. Stomach

When a muscle contracts, it becomes

a. shorter and thinner

b. longer and thicker

c. shorter and thicker

d. longer and thinner

c. shorter and thicker

A doughnut-shaped gland that encircles the urethra is the

a. urinary bladder.

b. bulbourethral glands.

c. prostate gland.

d. none of the above.

c. prostate gland.

The vitamin produced by the normal flora of the colon in amounts sufficient to meet a person's daily need, is vitamin

a. A

b. E

c. K

d. D

c. K

Which one of the following is the most common blood disorder that may result from a variety of causes?

a. Leukemia

b. Thrombocytopenia

c. Anemia

d. Polycythemia

c. Anemia

The most important digestive enzyme in the gastric juice is

a. rennin.

b. gasrtrin.

c. CCK.

d. pepsin.

d. pepsin.

A patient diagnosed with farsightedness has

a. diplopia

b. myopia

c. hyperopia

d. presbyopia

c. hyperopia

Digestion that breaks food into tiny pieces is

a. mechanical.

b. chemical.

c. peristaisis.

d. relaxation

a. mechanical.

Where is the stomach located?

a. Under the diaphragm

b. Above the heart

c. Below the small intestine

d. Below the large intestine

a. Under the diaphragm

The lining of the uterus is called the

a. myometrium

b. endometrium

c. peritoneum

d. mycardium

b. endometrium

A type of bone fracture producing many bone fragments is

a. an open fracture

b. a compound fracture

c. a comminuted fracture

d. a greenstick fracture

c. a comminuted fracture

The cavity within the kidney that collects urine is the

a. ureter

b. renal pelvis

c. urinary bladder

d. Bowman's capsule

b. renal pelvis

The mucous membrane that lines the inner surface of the eyelid is called

a. conjunctiva.

b. epithelium

c. lacrimal apparatus.

d. tears.

a. conjunctiva.

The internal folds of the stomach are known as

a. villi

b. rugae

c. cilia

d. convolutions

b. rugae

The left ventricle of the heart sends blood out through which artery?

a. aorta

b. carotid

c. coronary

d. pulmonary

a. aorta

The abnormal lateral curvature of the spine that is often congenital in origin is

a. lordosis

b. scoliosis

c. kyphosis

d. spondylosis

b. scoliosis

What organ is located in the lymphatic system?

a. Brain

b. Pancreas

c. Spleen

d. Heart

c. Spleen

The combining form "hist/o" means

a. fat.

b. tissue.

c. organ.

d. muscle

b. tissue.

Which of the following is the most common eye condition associated with aging?

a. Glaucoma

b. Presbyopia

c. Conjunctivitis

d. Astigmatism

b. Presbyopia

The medical term for inflammation of the liver is

a. hepatitis

b. hepatomegaly

c. cirrhosis

d. ascites

a. hepatitis

The study of the stomach and the intestine is

a. gastrology.

b. gastroenterology.

c. enterology.

d. enterogastrology

b. gastroenterology.

The inflammation of the pancreas is

a. pancreatis.

b. pancreatitis.

c. pancreatin.

d. pancreatic.

b. pancreatitis.

The prefix "ad" means

a. to move away from.

b. to add to.

c. around.

d. removal of.

b. to add to.

What is the first portion of the small intestine?

a. Ileum

b. Jejunum

c. Cecum

d. Duodenum

d. Duodenum

An accumulation of serous fluid in the peritoneal cavity is

a. melena.

b. degultition.

c. eructation

d. ascites.

d. ascites.

The combining form that means "red" is

Select one:

a. xantho

b. leuko

c. erythro

d. melano

c. erythro

Which term is best described as "destruction by burning"?

Select one:

a. Cryosurgery

b. Fulguration

c. Electro cauterization

d. Anastomosis

c. Electro cauterization

The suffix meaning "inflammation" is

a. osis

b. ectomy

c. itis

d. desis

c. itis

"Abnormal widening of the arterial wall that is weak and bulges", defines the term

a. embolism.

b. phlebitis.

c. aneurysm.

d. arteriosclerosis

c. aneurysm.

Which of the following means pertaining to after meals?

a. Postocular

b. Postfebrile

c. Postictal

d. Postprandial

d. Postprandial

The term "myotomy" means incision into

a. a tendon.

b. a muscle.

c. the eardrum.

d. the spinal cord

b. a muscle.

Low blood pressure is

a. hypertension.

b. hypotension.

c. carcinoma.

d. morphology.

b. hypotension.

Encephalopathy is defined as

a. swelling of the brain.

b. deterioration of the brain

c. inflammation of the brain

d. any dysfunction of the brain

d. any dysfunction of the brain

The abbreviation for "prescription" is

a. Fx

b. Bx

c. Rx

d. Tx

c. Rx

Choose the abbreviation that means four times a day.

a. QOD

b. QID

c. QD

d. HS

b. QID

Which of the following is the correct spelling of the term meaning inflammation of the tonsils?

a. Tonsilitis

b. Tonsillitis

c. Toncilitis

d. Toncillitis

b. Tonsillitis

What term is best associated with cancer that has spread to other organs of the body?

a. Benign

b. Meiosis

c. Malignancy

d. Metastasis

d. Metastasis

A small mass of masticated food ready to be swallowed is

a. bolus.

b. chyme.

c. anabolism.

d. catabolism.

a. bolus.

Inflammation of the salivary gland is known as:

a. saladenitis.

b. sialadenitis.

c. sialaden

d. sialoangitis

b. sialadenitis.

Which one of the following is a water-soluble vitamin?

Select one:

a. E

b. K

c. C

d. D

c. C

The abbreviation "QID" means

a. every day.

b. two times per day.

c. three times per day.

d. four times per day.

d. four times per day.

The medical term for a toothache is

a. detoid.

b. denticle.

c. dentalgia.

d. dentibuccal.

c. dentalgia.

Which one of the following is a physician having a practice limited to the aging population?

a. Gastroenterologist

b. Gynecologist

c. Gerontologist

d. Pathologist

c. Gerontologist

The law requires that which one of the following be reported to the appropriate authorities?

a. Physician advertising

b. Suspected child abuse

c. A minor with a positive pregnancy test

d. Advertisements for surrogacy

b. Suspected child abuse

The purpose of the Good Samaritan Act is to protect healthcare providers rendering First Aid from

a. loss of credentials.

b. civil and criminal liability.

c. contracting diseases.

d. accidental injury.

b. civil and criminal liability.

The physician informs the medical assistant that he or she will no longer treat a patient who refuses to follow his or her medical advice and treatment plan. The procedure that the medical assistant should follow is to

a. telephone the patient to explain the situation.

b. refer the patient to another physician the next time an appointment is requested.

c. send a letter of formal withdrawal to the patient by certified mail, return receipt requested.

d. send the original medical records to the patient.

c. send a letter of formal withdrawal to the patient by certified mail, return receipt requested.

The statute that defines what is included in the practice of medicine, establishes the requirements for licensure, and establishes the grounds for suspension or revocation of a license is called the

a. Nursing and Advance Practice Nursing Act.

b. Medical Practice Act.

c. Patient's Bill of rights.

d. National Health Planning and Resources Development Act.

b. Medical Practice Act.

Which of the following is a court order requiring a witness to produce records for a trial?

a. Bench Warrant

b. Writ

c. Interrogatory

d. Subpoena duces tecum

d. Subpoena duces tecum

A patient's implied consent usually covers which one of the following procedures?

a. Blood test

b. Lumbar puncture

c. Organ donation

d. Breast biopsy

a. Blood test

A medical assistant makes a medication error while under the physician's direction. The patient is injured and files a medical malpractice lawsuit. The court determines that the physician is liable for the medical assistant's negligence. This is known as the doctrine of

a. respondeat superior.

b. res ispa loquitur.

c. locum tenens.

d. res judicata.

a. respondeat superior.

The criteria of "duty owed, dereliction of duty, direct cause, and damages" are used in reference to which of the following situations?

a. The burden of proof in a criminal case

b. Providing emergency treatment with informed consent

c. Withholding or withdrawing life support measures

d. Assessing the possibility of negligence

d. Assessing the possibility of negligence

The purpose of HIPAA security standards is to set national standards for safeguarding the confidentiality of

a. electronic exchange of patient information.

b. insurance premium information.

c. paper-based patient files.

d. office employee files.

a. electronic exchange of patient information.

An example of a medical assistant illegally practicing medicine is

a. interviewing a patient.

b. giving advice on a patient condition.

c. scheduling a patient appointment.

d. taking vital signs.

b. giving advice on a patient condition.

Translated as "the thing speaks for itself", which of the following is evidence showing that negligence by the accused person may be reasonably inferred from the nature of the injury occurring to the plaintiff?

a. non compus mentis

b. Quid quo pro

c. Res ipsa loquitur

d. Corpus jusis

c. Res ipsa loquitur

In some states, a minor is legally unable to make treatment decisions with limited exceptions. Under what circumstances would a patient such as Jane Doe, a 16-year-old minor, suffering from cancer, be allowed to refuse continued chemotherapy treatments?

a. Being an emancipated minor

b. Being declared mentally incompetent

c. Being abandoned by her parents

d. under the doctrine of Res Ipsa Loquitur

a. Being an emancipated minor

The Committee on Medicolegal Problems of the American Medical Association (AMA) has determined that patients must present evidence of four elements before negligence has been proven. Which of the following is NOT one of the four elements of negligence?

a. Duty

b. Defamation

c. Direct cause

d. Damages

b. Defamation

Under this doctrine, physicians are legally responsible for the acts of their employees when they are acting within the scope of their duties or employment.

a. Respondeat superior

b. Reciprocity

c. The Occupational Safety and Health Act

d. Patient's Bill of Rights

a. Respondeat superior

HIPAA requires covered entities to submit Medicare claims

a. through claims processing centers.

b. through electronic data exchange.

c. by paper CMS 1500 forms.

d. by facsimile transmission.

b. through electronic data exchange.

Dr. Martin agrees to perform an appendectomy on Mrs. O'Hara. Mrs. O'Hara has received anesthesia and is prepped for surgery. Dr. Martin is double-booked so he allows the Chief Resident, Dr. Thompson, to perform Mrs. O'Hara's appendectomy. The practice of substituting another surgeon without the patient's consent is the unethical situation known as

a. surgical fee splitting.

b. contingent surgery.

c. ghost surgery.

d. surgical professional courtesy.

c. ghost surgery.

A physician performed plastic surgery on a patient and later published an article about the procedure in a medical journal. A photograph of the surgical site was included. Permission to publish the photograph had not been obtained. This act is an example of

a. negligence.

b. malfeasance.

c. invasion of privacy.

d. fraud.

c. invasion of privacy.

If a caring family member asks about a patient's treatment, the medical assistant should

a. provide only information that has been authorized by the patient.

b. share all information with the relative.

c. ignore the relative and walk away.

d. assure the relative that the patient will be fine.

a. provide only information that has been authorized by the patient.

The provision of medical care to physician's colleagues, their families, or staff free of charge (or at a reduced fee) is called

a. professional courtesy.

b. contingent fee.

c. fee schedule.

d. account receivable

a. professional courtesy.

Mrs. Jones is diagnosed with a terminal illness. She has given permission for her husband, Mr. Jones, to have access to her medical information. Dr. Smith informs Mr. Jones that his wife is terminally ill. Mr. Jones does not want Dr. Smith to tell her patient that she is terminally ill. The physician would violate which of the following ethical principles if she does not inform her patient of the correct diagnosis?

a. Fair distribution of benefits

b. Veracity

c. Maleficence

d. Justice

b. Veracity

Psychologist Abraham Maslow created the "Hierarchy of Needs". Maslow believed that our human needs can be categorized into five levels and that the needs of each level must be satisfied before we can move on to the next. Which of the following is the correct order of Maslow's "Hierarchy of Needs" starting from the bottom to the top?

a. Physiological needs, Love and belonging, Safety and security, Esteem and recognition, Self-actualization

b. Physiological needs, Safety and security, Esteem and recognition, Love and belonging, Self-Actualization

c. Physiological needs, Love and belonging, Esteem and recognition, Safety and Security, Self-actualization

d. Physiological needs, Safety and Security, Love and belonging, Esteem and recognition, Self-actualization

d. Physiological needs, Safety and Security, Love and belonging, Esteem and recognition, Self-actualization

The avoidance of confronting a personal problem or reality by acting as if the problem or reality never existed is a defense mechanism known as

a. displacement.

b. denial.

c. physical avoidance.

d. projection.

b. denial.

Positioning or sitting behind a desk communicates the message of

a. authority.

b. impartiality.

c. congruency.

d. acknowledgment.

a. authority.

Dr. Elisabeth Kübler-Ross' stages of Death and Dying progress through five stages. Which of the following is the correct order of her Death and Dying stages?

a. Depression, anger, bargaining, denial, acceptance

b. Anger, depression, denial, bargaining, acceptance

c. Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance

d. Denial, depression, anger, bargaining, acceptance

c. Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance

When educating your patient, which of the following is not recommended for the prevention of deep vein thrombosis?

a. avoid compression stockings

b. If anticoagulants have been prescribed, eat foods high in vitamin K in small amounts

c. Avoid sitting still for long periods

d. Walk around several times during the day or move the legs frequently

a. avoid compression stockings

Educating female patients on signs and symptoms of a myocardial infarction includes all of the following except

a. back pain or aching and throbbing in the biceps or forearms.

b. shortness of breath (SOB).

c. feeling of lightness or feeling famished in the mediastinum.

d. dizziness (vertigo) - unexplained lightheadedness or syncopal episodes.

c. feeling of lightness or feeling famished in the mediastinum.

When explaining drug use terminology to the patient, prophylactic is best explained as

a. preventing the occurrence of a condition (e.g. vaccines prevent the occurrence of specific infectious diseases).

b. helping to determine the cause of a particular health problem (e.g. injecting antigen serum for allergy testing).

c. indicating that the drug does not cure, but provides relief from pain or symptoms related to the disorder (e.g. the use of an antihistamine for allergy symptoms or narcotics for pain relief).

d. treating and curing a disorder (e.g. antibiotics cure bacterial infections).

a. preventing the occurrence of a condition (e.g. vaccines prevent the occurrence of specific infectious diseases).

Patient education for preventing Lyme disease includes all of the following except

a. Wear pants tucked into socks and long-sleeved shirts when walking in wooded or grassy areas

b. Use insect repellants that contain DEET

c. Understand that deer ticks are no bigger than the head of a pin or a grain of pepper

d. Remove a tick by squeezing or crushing the tick with tweezers

d. Remove a tick by squeezing or crushing the tick with tweezers

Instructing patients in the collection of a clean-catch, midstream urine specimen is especially important in order to avoid contamination. Which of the following is incorrect in patient education?

a. Cleanse each side of the urinary meatus with a front-to-back motion from the pubic to the anus.

b. On the second motion, cleanse directly across the meatus, back-to-front, using another antiseptic wipe

c. Allow the initial flow of urine to pass into the toilet flushing the opening of the urethra.

d. Fill the container half way.

b. On the second motion, cleanse directly across the meatus, back-to-front, using another antiseptic wipe

Diabetic patient education must be acknowledged and followed by the patient. Which of the following is not recommended for the diabetic patient?

a. Maintain plasma glucose level between 120 and 200 mg/dL

b. Stop smoking. Smoking causes vasoconstriction which reduces circulation to the extremities

c. Wash your feet every day with warm (not hot) water and mild soap

d. Check your feet every day, using a mirror if necessary.

a. Maintain plasma glucose level between 120 and 200 mg/dL

A "non-duplication of benefits" is also called

a. major medical.

b. service benefit plan.

c. co-payment plan.

d. coordination of benefits.

d. coordination of benefits.

The policy describing a period of non-coverage for conditions diagnosed prior to the issuance of an insurance benefit plan is called

a. an exclusion.

b. a special risk rider.

c. a hold-harmless clause.

d. a pre-existing conditions waiver.

d. a pre-existing conditions waiver.

Medicare Part B covers

a. prescription drugs.

b. routine eye examinations.

c. elective cosmetic surgery.

d. prescription medical equipment.

d. prescription medical equipment.

Accepting assignment on a Medicare claim means that the physician is compensated

a. 70% of the allowable charge.

b. 100% of the limiting charge.

c. 80% of approved amount.

d. 100% of the usual and customary fee.

c. 80% of approved amount.

A letter for statement from the insurance carrier describing what was paid, denied, or reduced in payment. Also contains information about amounts applied to the deductible, the patient's co-insurance, and the allowed amounts.

a. Explanation of benefits (EOB)

b. Assignment of benefits (AOB)

c. Third-party administrator (TPA)

d. Participating provider (PAR)

a. Explanation of benefits (EOB)

The notice sent to the patient showing the amount owed to the physician is called the

a. CMS 1500.

b. chart of accounts.

c. receivables summary.

d. itemized statement.

d. itemized statement.

An organization that contracts with the government to handle and mediate insurance claims from the medical facilities, home health agencies, or providers of medical services or supplies.

a. Guarantor

b. Service benefit plan

c. Fiscal intermediary

d. Carrier

c. Fiscal intermediary

Which one of the following is an insurance claim processing error?

a. Entering all diagnoses on the claim

b. Using "rule out" diagnosis

c. Recording one item per line

d. Using both ICD-10 and CPT codes

b. Using "rule out" diagnosis

Traditional health insurance plans that pay for all or a share of the cost of covered services, regardless of which physician, hospital, or other licensed healthcare provider is used. Policyholders and their dependents choose when and where to get healthcare services.

a. Indemnity plan

b. Health maintenance organization plan

c. Self-insured plan

d. Managed care plan

a. Indemnity plan

The term "total permanent impairment" means that the patient

a. is unable to work for one year.

b. is unable to perfor duties for 30 days.

c. may return to full occupational duty.

d. is unable to perform previous occupational duties.

d. is unable to perform previous occupational duties.

An example of a Medicare HCPCS code number is

a. 934.6

b. 99211

c. J0540

d. V72.3

c. J0540

Claims for Medicaid patients enrolled in a managed care plan are paid according to what fee schedule?

a. PPO

b. Medicaid

c. Medicare

d. Capitated

d. Capitated

A written authorization by the patient giving the insurance company the right to pay the physician directly for billed services is known as the

a. copayment.

b. deductible.

c. Assigment of Benefits.

d. premium. Incorrect

c. Assigment of Benefits.