Anesthesia quiz 4 textbook questions

Which of the following is true regarding use of standing chemical restraint for performing surgery on a horse? a. Horse must be endotracheally intubated for standing chemical restraint b. Risk of myopathy or neuropathy is higher with standing chemical restraint c. The head must be supported in a normal position to avoid nasal congestion d. Hypoxemia is common complication of standing chemical restraint

Which of the following is true regarding use of standing chemical restraint for performing surgery on a horse? a. Horse must be endotracheally intubated for standing chemical restraint b. Risk of myopathy or neuropathy is higher with standing chemical restraint c. The head must be supported in a normal position to avoid nasal congestion d. Hypoxemia is common complication of standing chemical restraint

c. The head must be supported in a normal position to avoid nasal congestion

If a horse becomes excited after it has been premedicated with Xylazine IV before general anesthesia, the next step should take is to: a. Allow the horse time to calm down before proceeding b. Physically restrain the horse using ropes c. Induce the horse with ace d. Induce the horse with ketamine

a. Allow the horse time to calm down before proceeding

Appropriate positioning and padding of the horse on the surgery table are essential to prevent: a. Hypoxemia and hypotension b. Myopathies and neuropathies c. Hypoventilation and hypertension d. Regurgitation and aspiration

b. Myopathies and neuropathies

What is/are the main reason(s) for including guaifenesin in an induction protocol in horses? a. Muscle relaxion b. Analgesia c. Sedation d. All of the above

a. Muscle relaxion

An inhalant induction via nasotracheal tube placement is appropriate for which of the following patients a. A 2 year old Arabian stallion undergoing arthroscopy b. A 25 year old thoroughbred mare undergoing sinus surgery c. A 3 week old foal undergoing colic surgery d. A 6 month old foal undergoing umbilical hernia repair

c. A 3 week old foal undergoing colic surgery

Which of the following statements best describes endotracheal intubation in the horse? a. Intubation is performed blindly with the head and neck extended b. Intubation can only be performed in lateral recumbency c. A laryngoscope is useful for visualization of the larynx d. An endoscope is commonly used to facilitate intubation

a. Intubation is performed blindly with the head and neck extended

The most common complications in horses during maintenance of anesthesia with inhalant anesthetics are: a. Hypoxemia, hypertension, bradycardia b. Hypoxemia, hypotension, bradycardia c. Hypoxemia, hypertension, hypoventilation d. Hypoxemia, hypotension, hypoventilation

d. Hypoxemia, hypotension, hypoventilation

Which drug is used to treat hypotension in the anesthetized horse? a. Dextrose b. Digoxin c. Dobutamine d. Doxycycline

c. Dobutamine

Of all the phases of anesthesia, recovery poses the highest risk to the horse, and is the phase over which the anesthetist has the least control a. True b. False

true

A horse that has recovered from anesthesia following arthroscopy, and it shows the following clinical signs: hard, swollen gluteal muscles, stiff gait, and reluctance to walk. The most likely diagnosis is? a. Colic b. Myopathy c. Neuropathy d. Nephropathy

b. Myopathy

1. Comparing the sensitivity of cattle, horses, and swine to xylazine, which of the following is true? a. Cattle are more sensitive than horses, which are more sensitive than swine b. Cattle are more sensitive than swine, which are more sensitive than horses c. Horses are more sensitive than cattle, which are more sensitive swin d. Swine are more sensitive than cattle, which are more sensitive than horses

a. Cattle are more sensitive than horses, which are more sensitive than swine

An anticholinergic is an essential component of premedication in ruminants a. True b. False

false

"Double Drip" contains which of the two drugs? a. Guaifenesin and dobutamine b. Guaifenesin and ketamine c. Xylazine and ketamine d. Acepromazine and ketamine

b. Guaifenesin and ketamine

You plan to anesthetize a 1000 kg bull and maintain anesthesia using an inhalant technique. Which of the following statements regarding intubation is correct? a. The inhalant can be safely delivered via a facemask b. You will need a laryngoscope to visualize the larynx c. You will have to intubate bull manually d. All of the above

c. You will have to intubate bull manually

1. It is common for anesthetized ruminant to hypoventilate a. True b. False

true

1. Positioning the head of an anesthetized ruminant with the pharynx higher than the mouth helps to prevent: a. Hyperventilation b. Hypotension c. Aspiration d. Hypoxemia

c. Aspiration

Ruminants should be placed in sternal recumbency during recovery to allow them to: a. Eructate b. Regurgitate c. Salivate d. Hyperventilate

a. Eructate

A hematoma can result from unsuccessful jugular catheterization in a camelid may result in which of the following? a. Bloat b. Excessive blood bloss c. Nasal congestion d. Pressure on the tracheal wall

d. Pressure on the tracheal wall

When recovering a camelid after general anesthesia, how should it be positioned a. In lateral recumbency with head on the ground b. In lateral recumbency with head elevated c. In sternal recumbency with head on the ground d. In sternal recumbency with head elevated

d. In sternal recumbency with head elevated

Intubation is made easier in pigs by a. The presence of a laryngeal diverticulum b. The possibility of laryngospasm c. The use of a stylette c. The angle of the laryngotracheal junction

c. The use of a stylette

Which of the following statements regarding porcine anesthesia is true? a. Oscillometric blood pressure monitors work well in pigs b. All pigs should have complete blood work before anesthesia c. Pigs are sensitive to alpha 2 agonists d. Intravenous sedation is virtually impossible in healthy pigs

d. Intravenous sedation is virtually impossible in healthy pigs

Which of the following is not a symptom of porcine stress syndrome a. Hypothermia b. Hyperthermia c. Hyperkalemia d. Hypercapnia

a. Hypothermia

When an animal scheduled for a surgical procedure is brought in by a neighbor who is in a hurry, the best thing to do is? a. Instruct the receptionist to have the neighbor sign a consent form b. Ask the neighbor to take the pet back home c. Ask the neighbor some quick questions about the animal d. Have the neighbor sign a consent form and ensure the owner is called before the procedure is initiated

d. Have the neighbor sign a consent form and ensure the owner is called before the procedure is initiated

1. In preparation for an anesthetic procedure, you have drawn up a syringe of alfaxalone and an identical syringe of saline. You are then called to the exam room. About 10 minuets later, you return to prepare the animal for induction, with the IV catheter in place, you are just about to inject some saline into the animal when you realize you are not sure whether the syringe contains saline. What is the best thing to do? a. Inject a small amount of solution to see what effect it has b. Discard both syringes and start over c. Ask the person who was holding the animal which syringe had saline in it d. Discard both syringes, label some new ones, and start over

d. Discard both syringes, label some new ones, and start over

You are about to use the anesthetic machine and notice that although the flow meter is working, the pressure gauge on the oxygen tank reads close to zero. The best thing to do would be: a. Assume that the pressure gauge may be faulty and wait to see whether the flow meter stops working b. Change the oxygen tank c. Call the prepare person to have the pressure gauge checked d. Use low-flow anesthesia technique and ignore the pressure gauge reading

b. Change the oxygen tank

While monitoring a patient on an anesthetic machine, you realize that the oxygen tank has become empty. The best thing to do is: a. Disconnect the patient from the circuit, put on a new oxygen tank, and then reconnect the patient to the circuit b. Remove the circuit from the patient to allow it to breathe room air for the remainder of the procedure c. Resuscitate the patient with an ambu bag d. Switch to an injectable anesthetic

a. Disconnect the patient from the circuit, put on a new oxygen tank, and then reconnect the patient to the circuit

If the pop-off valve is inadvertently left shut, it will: a. Stop the oxygen from entering the breathing circuit b. Convert the circuit to low-flow anesthesia c. Cause a significant rise of pressure within the circuit d. Cause the unidirectional valve to malfunction

c. Cause a significant rise of pressure within the circuit

You look at the oxygen tank and note that 1000 psi of pressure is left in the tank, but the flowmeter now reads zero and you can't obtain a flow by twisting the knobs. The best thing to do would be to assume: a. The oxygen tank pressure gauge is malfunctioning and you need to recheck the flow meter b. The oxygen pressure is adequate and the flow meter is simply not registering the flow c. The animal is not getting oxygen, and you need to remove the animal form the circuit until a new machine is found and the problem is corrected

c. The animal is not getting oxygen, and you need to remove the animal form the circuit until a new machine is found and the problem is corrected

A geriatric patient is considered to be one that: a. Is greater than 10 years old b. Is greater than 15 years old c. Has reached 50% of its life expectancy d. Has reached 75% of its life expectancy

d. Has reached 75% of its life expectancy

Brain damage may occur when there is inadequate oxygenation of the tissues for longer than ___________ minuets a. 3 b. 5 c. 7 d. 9

b. 5

When a technician is performing CPR alone, the ratio of chest compressions to ventilation should be: a. 5:1 b. 10:1 c. 20:2 d. 30:2

d. 30:2

When performing CPR, chest compressions should be discontinued a. When providing breaths b. If you are unsure whether the patient has arrested c. After 10 minuets of CPR if there is no response d. Briefly between every 2 minuet cycles

d. Briefly between every 2 minuet cycles

Respiratory distress is always fatal a. True b. False

false

One may suspect that the endotracheal tube is malfunctioning even if it is in the trachea because: a. Compression of the reservoir bag does not result in the raising of the chest b. The animal is dyspneic c. The animal cannot be kept at an adequate plane of anesthesia d. The reservoir bag is not moving or is moving very little

a. Compression of the reservoir bag does not result in the raising of the chest b. The animal is dyspneic c. The animal cannot be kept at an adequate plane of anesthesia d. The reservoir bag is not moving or is moving very little

One may suspect that the pop-off valve has been closed or that it is malfunctioning a. Reservoir bag is distended with air b. Patient has difficulty exhaling c. Patient wakes up d. Flow rate starts to drop

a. Reservoir bag is distended with air b. Patient has difficulty exhaling

Administration of IV fluids at the commonly prescribed rate of 5 to 10 ml/kg/hr during an anesthetic procedure may result in overhydration in the: a. Patient with cardiac disease b. Obese patient c. Pediatric patient a. Brachycephalic patient

a. Patient with cardiac disease c. Pediatric patient

Brachycephalic dogs may be at increased anesthetic risk because of their: a. Physical size b. Excess tissue around oropharynx c. Increased vagal tone d. Small trachea in comparison with their physical body size

b. Excess tissue around oropharynx c. Increased vagal tone d. Small trachea in comparison with their physical body size

To decrease the anesthetic risk associated with a brachycephalic dog, the anesthetist may elect to : a. Use atropine as part of the anesthetic protocol b. Preoxygenate the animal before giving any anesthetic c. Use an injectable anesthetic to hasten induction rather than masking d. Intubate immediately after induction

a. Use atropine as part of the anesthetic protocol b. Preoxygenate the animal before giving any anesthetic c. Use an injectable anesthetic to hasten induction rather than masking d. Intubate immediately after induction

Animals that undergo caesarean section are at increased risk during anesthesia because of: a. Decreased respiratory function b. Increased chance of aspirating vomitus c. Increased chance of hemorrhage d. Increased workload on the heart

a. Decreased respiratory function b. Increased chance of aspirating vomitus c. Increased chance of hemorrhage d. Increased workload on the heart

Anesthetic agents or drugs that one may want to avoid in the animalwith cardiovascular disease include: a. Ketamine b. Isoflurane c. Xylazine d. Opioids

a. Ketamine c. Xylazine

An inadequate plane of anesthesia may be the result of: a. An oxygen flow rate that is too low b. An incorrect vaporizer setting c. Incorrect placement of the endotracheal tube d. Use of an anesthetic with a low MAC

a. An oxygen flow rate that is too low b. An incorrect vaporizer setting c. Incorrect placement of the endotracheal tube

Tachypnea may result from: a. An increased levels of arterial oxygen b. Increased levels of arterial CO2 c. The use of ketamine d. An inadequate plane of anesthesia

b. Increased levels of arterial CO2 d. An inadequate plane of anesthesia

When the blood pressure drops, the vet may ask the tech to infuse a colloid. Which of the following is not a colloid? a. Hetastarch b. Hypertonic saline c. Dextran d. Plasma

b. Hypertonic saline

Laryngospasm is more common in dogs than cats a. True b. False

false

Bradycardia can always be treated with an anticholinergic a. True b. False

false

Pulseless V tach in the dog is initially treated with a. Lidocaine b. Atropine c. Defib d. Vasopressin

c. Defib