Strength and Conditioning Final Exam

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180 Terms

1
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Which of the following is an example of a low-speed muscular strength test?

bench press 1RM

2
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An athlete struggles to return to a "ready" stance after jumping for a ball. This deficiency demonstrates a need to improve which of the following components of athletic performance?

stability

3
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Anthropometry generally includes measurements of all of the following EXCEPT

BMI

4
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During the 300-yard (274 m) shuttle run, how far away are the lines, and how many round trips are made to complete this test?

15 yards (13.7 m) apart with 20 trips

5
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For men and women respectively, which of the following loads should be used for the YMCA bench press test?

80 lbs (36.4 kg) and 35 lbs (15.9)

6
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Which of the following is a valid test of local muscular endurance for a well-trained athlete?

push-up test

7
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A female athlete's body fat percentage was measured before the competitive season. If she was classified as "leaner than average," what was her measurement?

19-20%

8
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Which of the following allows for someone to draw conclusions about a population from the information collected in a population sample?

inferential statistics

9
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Which of the following instructions should the coach give to an athlete when assessing the athlete's reactive strength index?

"Place your hands on your hips while on top of the drop box"

10
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Which of the following is the effect size for a 10-week squat training program? The athlete's pretraining 1RM squat mean was 150 kg (330 lbs), the posttraining 1 RM squat mean was 156 kg (343.2 lbs), and the standard deviation was 6 kg (13.2 lbs).

1.0

11
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Which of the following is a temperature-related effect of a well-designed warm-up?

enhanced neural functioning

12
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Which of the following are components of the RAMP protocol?

raise, activate, mobilize, potentiate

13
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An athlete performing ballistic stretching should follow which of the following guidelines?

Involve an active muscular effort

14
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Which of the following describes a Golgi tendon organ?

monitors changes in muscle length

15
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During a PNF stretch, all of the following muscle actions is used to facilitate the passive stretch of a muscle EXCEPT

isometric muscle action of the agonist

16
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An athlete is performing repeated walking knee lift stretches. Which of the following is the best definition of the type of stretching being completed?

dynamic stretching

17
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Which of the following describes muscle and connective tissue elasticity?

ability to return to the original resting length after a passive stretch

18
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Regarding age and sex of individuals, which of the following is true?

fibrous connective tissue replaces degenerating muscle fibers in older people

19
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Which type of joint in the body typically exhibits the greatest ROM?

ball-and-socket

20
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Which of the following describes the difference between dynamic ROM and static ROM?

Static ROM is greater than dynamic ROM

21
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Which of the following grips is used for the hammer curl?

closed, neutral

22
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All of the following are points of contact with the bench when an athlete is in the five-point body contact position EXCEPT

right hand

23
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As the bench press exercise is performed, the sticking point occurs at which of the following points within an athlete's range of motion?

soon after the transition from the eccentric phase to the concentric phase

24
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An athlete performing which of the following workouts has the greatest need for a weight belt?

back squat at 90% 1RM

25
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Which of the following exercises does not require one or more spotters?

snatch

26
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Which of the following grip widths can be determined using the fist-to-opposite-shoulder method or the elbow-to-elbow method?

snatch grip

27
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Which of the following is a guideline for proper technique for the first pull of the power clean exercise?

As the bar is raised, keep it as close to the shins as possible

28
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When an athlete is performing the upward movement phase of the seated barbell shoulder press exercise, all of the following specify the action of the spotter to assists the athlete to perform the first rep EXCEPT

Grasp the bar with a closed, alternated grip inside the athlete's hands

29
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Which of the following is a major muscle involved with the leg extension exercise?

rectus femoris

30
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Which of the following describes the differences between the upward movement phase of the push press compared to the push jerk?

Hip and knee extension thrust is only forceful enough to drive the bar one-half to two-thirds the distance overhead

31
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Which of the following is the best exercise to train the anatomical core musculature in individuals who want to improve sport performance?

back squat

32
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Which of the following is an advantage of machine-based training?

enhanced ability to target specific muscle groups

33
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Which of the following does NOT occur when a ground-based free weight training exercise is performed on an unstable surface?

need to perform other exercises decreases

34
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Which of the following factors is held constant during an accommodating resistance training exercise?

speed of movement

35
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Which of the following factors is held constant during a traditional resistance training exercise?

external load

36
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Which of the following is an advantage of variable-resistance training?

matches the change in joint leverage

37
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Which of the following techniques to flip a heavy-equipment tire commonly uses the narrowest hand position or grip?

sumo

38
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Weaker individuals often display _________ and may benefit from the use of unilateral training methods?

bilateral deficits

39
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Which of the following muscles are primarily trained during the single-leg Romanian deadlift exercise?

gluteus maximus

40
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The single-leg Romanian deadlift can be performed with the weight held in the hand of the same side of the body as the support leg (______) or in the hand of the opposite side of the body as the support leg (_____).

ipsilateral; contralateral

41
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The acronym SAID stands for which of the following?

Specific Adaptations to Imposed Demands

42
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When developing a resistance training program, which of the following program design variables should be designed first?

needs analysis

43
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Which of the following best describes core exercises and assistance exercises, respectively?

Recruit one or more large muscle areas and receive priority when selecting exercises; recruit smaller areas and are considered less important to improving sport performance

44
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Which of the following is an antagonist muscle group in the bench press exercise?

triceps brachii

45
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Which of the following exercises requires the least amount of recovery time between training sessions?

lateral raises

46
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Which of the following is the best example of a pair of exercises that, when performed sequentially with little to no rest between them, constitute a compound set?

Upright row and shoulder press

47
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All of the following influence an athlete's volume-load for a resistance training program EXCEPT

repetition and set scheme

48
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If an athlete is tested in the bench press and is found to have a 1RM of 220 lbs (100 kg), approximately what weight should the athlete lift if he is performing six reps per set?

185 lbs (85 kg)

49
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Which of the following percentages of an athlete's 1RM should be assigned for a non-weightlifting multijoint exercise to maximize power output?

0-30%

50
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Which of the following volumes has the greatest potential to increase muscular endurance?

5 sets of 15 reps

51
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Which of the following is the order of the phases of the stretch-shortening cycle?

eccentric, amortization, concentric

52
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Which of the following explains why a static squat jump results in a lower jump height than a countermovement jump?

more rapid eccentric element

53
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What type of lower body plyometric drill requires a higher horizontal speed than the other types of drills?

bounding

54
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Which of the following is recommended landing surface for performing pylometrics?

suspended floor

55
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When an athlete lands on the ground from a lower body plyometric jump, the shoulders should be in line with the ________, when viewed from the side.

knees

56
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What type of drill used to warm up for a plyometric training session emphasizes posture and movement techniques?

marching

57
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Which of the following is a method to increase the intensity of the plyometric lateral barrier hop drill?

use only one leg

58
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Which of the following is NOT part of the starting position for the plyometric single-arm throw drill?

rotate the throwing arm so that the forearm is parallel to the floor

59
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Which of the following is the best recommendation for combining plyometric training with resistance training in a single workout session?

high-intensity lower body resistance training with low-intensity upper body pylometrics

60
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Which of the following is the maximum recommended depth box jump height for an athlete who weighs over 220 lbs (100 kg)?

18 inches (46 cm)

61
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Agility is similar to speed, except that agility also includes which of the following components that is not part of speed?

perceptual-cognitive ability

62
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Which of the following describes the rate and amplitude of impulses being sent from the nervous system to the target muscles?

neural drive

63
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Which of the following is the cause of an athlete's prematurely having an upright posture when starting a sprint?

inadequate push-off force

64
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Which of the following is the cause of an athlete's overstriding when sprinting at maximum velocity?

misunderstanding of force application

65
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For a sprint athlete, which of the following exercises is best used to develop the stretch-shortening cycle?

snatch

66
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Which of the following agility tests requires the longest time to complete?

T-test

67
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Which of the following is a field and court drill for a novice athlete who needs to work on eccentric strength?

deceleration drills

68
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When examining factors that provide insight into an athlete's change-of-direction and agility performance capabilities, all of the following are typically considered EXCEPT

duration of the test

69
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Which of the following has been shown to improve change-of-direction ability?

lower center of mass height

70
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After a needs analysis is performed, which of the following steps comes next when developing a program for agility development?

Determine the strengths and weaknesses by comparing results to performance standards

71
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Which of the following describes an athlete's maximum lactate steady state?

maximum lactate production is equal to maximum lactate clearance

72
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Which of the following describes a technique guideline for an optimal running gait?

The arms should swing in a reciprocating motion with the lower body

73
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Which of the following describes the minimum suggested hypoxic dose for an athlete to see an ergogenic effect from altitude training?

12 hours/day at moderate altitudes for at least 3 weeks

74
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All of the following are benefits from resistance training for highly trained aerobic endurance athletes EXCEPT

improvement in VO2max

75
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An athlete who typically runs for 70 minutes at 65% to 75% of her VO2max is looking to maintain a minimal level of conditioning. Which of the following workouts would provide the best stimulus for cross-training?

cycling at 75% of her VO2max for 70 minutes

76
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Which of the following is a type of aerobic endurance training that involves easy running (70% VO2max) combined with short, fast bursts of running (85-90% VO2max) for short periods of time?

Fartlek

77
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Which of the following is the maximum recommended weekly increase in training duration for an off-season athlete?

10%

78
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Approximately how many METs is equal to a VO2max of 70?

20

79
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A 30-year-old- athlete with a resting heart rate of 50 bpm is training at 60% of her maximal heart rate. Using the Karvonen method, what is her exercise heart rate?

134 bpm

80
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A 50-year-old athlete with a resting heart rate of 60 bpm is training at 70% his maximal heart rate. Using the maximal heart rate method, what is his exercise heart rate?

119 bpm

81
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Which of the following is the period between the preparatory and competitive periods?

first transition

82
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An athlete has just finished the preparatory period of his training and is now focused on his strength and power capabilities. This portion of training is generally referred to as what?

first transition period

83
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Which of the following makes the specific preparatory phase distinct from the general preparatory phase?

inclusion of sport-specific training activities

84
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In what method of periodization might an athlete perform four sets with a 6RM load on the first day of the week, three sets with a 10RM on the next training day, and five sets with a 3RM load on the last training day of the week?

undulating periodization

85
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An athlete is performing back squats at 95% of her 1RM for six sets of 2 reps. This is most consistent with which phase of her training?

basic strength

86
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According to the _________________, as an athlete recovers from and adapts to a training stimuli, fatigue will dissipate and preparedness and performance will increase.

stimulus-fatigue-recovery-adaptation theory

87
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An athlete has dramatically increased time spent practicing sport-specific skills and tactics and decreased overall training volume. This best describes an athlete's who has entered which of the following periods of training?

competitive

88
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All of the following are benefits of a three-week second transition period EXCEPT

preparing for upcoming competitive period

89
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In what method of periodization might an athlete perform five sets of four reps at 85% of 1RM on the first day of the week, five sets of four reps at 80% of 1RM on the next training day, and five sets of four reps at 70% of 1RM on the last training day of the week?

traditional periodization

90
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During which of the following phases should athletes ideally be tested to determine initial training loads for the exercises in the first mesocycle?

first week of the off-season

91
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The responsibility for the day-to-day physical health of an athlete falls to which of the following members of the sports medicine team?

athletic trainer

92
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Which of the following types of injury is characterized by an excess accumulation of blood and fluid in the tissues surrounding an injured muscle?

contusion

93
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After suffering a broken wrist, what is the sequence of phases of healing that an athlete must go through before returning to play?

inflammatory response, fibroblastic repair, maturation-remodeling

94
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Which of the following phases of healing is characterized by random deposits of Type III collagen fibers along the injured structure?

fibroblastic repair

95
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Which of the following is a treatment goal for rehabilitation during the inflammatory response phase of an injury?

prevention of new tissue disruption

96
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Which of the following is an exercise strategy during the maturation-remodeling phase of an injury?

joint-angle specific strengthening

97
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Which of the following is an exercise strategy during the fibroblastic repair phase of an injury?

submaximal isokinetic exercise

98
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Which of the following is a treatment goal for rehab during the maturation-remodeling phase of injury?

optimization of tissue function

99
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Which of the following is an example of a closed kinetic chain exercise?

deadlift

100
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Which of the following is an example of an open kinetic chain exercise?

leg curl