Dispatcher Practice Questions (2)

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Last updated 1:33 AM on 8/9/26
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98 Terms

1
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Define Operational Control? 14CFR part 1.1 (Hint - ICT)

With respect to flight, means the exercise of authority over initiating, conducting or terminating a flight

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Who has over all operational control? 14CFR

Certificate holder. Dispatcher have joint control with PIC. PIC has final Authority of aircraft in operation

3
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What are the pilot and dispatcher jointly responsible for? 121.533 domestic, 121.535 flag

Preflight, planning, delay and dispatch release of a flight 

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What about Supplemental Operations? 121.537

The PIC and Director of Operations are jointly responsible for the initiation, continuation, diversion and termination of a flight. (DO may delegate the responsibility)

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Who is the Director of Operations and whas his responsibilities?

The Director of Operations (DO) is one of the required management personnel positions under 14 CFR Part 119 for certificate holders conducting operations under Part 121 or Part 135. The DO is a key figure in the certificate holder's management structure and must be accepted by the FAA as qualified for the position.
Oversees all flight operations

  • Makes sure operational control system works properly

  • Ensures flights follow FAA rules and company manuals

  • Oversees pilot scheduling and training (with Chief Pilot)

  • Works with Maintenance and Safety directors to keep operations safe

  • Answers to the FAA for how flight operations are run

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what is director of operations responsible for at supplemental carrier

Responsible for canceling, diverting or delaying a flight 121.537

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What is the Aircraft Dispatcher responsible for?

M monitoring the progress of each flight

I issuing necessary info for the safety of flight

C cancelling or re-dispatching a flight if in his or the PIC's opinion the flight cannot operate or continue to operate safely as planned or released.

8
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What are STANDARD take-off minimums? 2 engines or less? 3 engines or more?

1 statute mile 2 engines or less, ½ statute mile 3 engines or more

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What are the STANDARD alternate minimums?

Precision approach 600/2, non-precision approach 800/2

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How Far away can a take off alternate be for a 2 engine aircraft? A 3 engine aircraft?

For 2 engine aircraft, not more than 1 hour at normal cruising speed. For 3 engine aircraft, not more than 2 hours from departure airport at normal cruise speed.

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Do Airlines really use STANDARD mins?

For the most part, NO. They use what is known as derived alternate minimums.

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Derived Alternate Minimums (1 NAV/2 NAV rule) In your company's Ops Specs.

1 Navaid (1 Nav frequency available) add 400/1 to the landing minimums, 2 Navaids (2 different Navaid frequencies available) add 200/ ½ to the landing minimums when coming up with your "derived alternate minimums"

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STAR

Standard Terminal Arrival Route

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SID

Standard Instrument Departure

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Q route

Available to RNAV equipped aircraft and are depicted on high enroute charts and available between

FL180- FL450

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T route

Available to RNAV equipped aircraft and are depicted on low enroute charts and are available between 1200 ft. MSL and up to, but not including FL180.

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Jet Route

FL180-FL450 (VOR receiver required)

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Victor Route

Approx. 1200 ft. MSL up to but not including FL180 (VOR receiver required)

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Class 1 Navigation

Any enroute flight operation conducted entirely within operational service volumes of standard NAVAIDS

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Class 2 Navigation

Anything not defined as class 1 navigation

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MEA

Minimum enroute altitude is the lowest published altitude between radio navigation fixes assuring navigation signal coverage and meets obstacle clearance requirements

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MAA

Maximum authorized altitude at which we can still get acceptable reception of our NAV signals

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MVA

Minimum vectoring altitude. Made for and used by ATC. They are made available on the FAA website, but are NOT FOR FLIGHT PLANNING PURPOSES!

24
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What is a destination alternate? How far away can it be? When do we need one?

ALWAYS! Unless 1 hour before and 1 hour after our ETA at our destination our weather shows us having less than 3 statute miles visibility and less than 2000' ceilings. We are not limited by distance.

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When do we need a take-off alternate? How far away can it be?

When our departure airport weather is below approach minimums. For a 2 engine aircraft: 1 hour in still air, at normal cruise speed, with one engine inoperative. For a 3 engine or greater aircraft: 2 hours, in still air, at normal cruise speed with one engine inoperative.

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What is a CDL?

Configuration Deviation List (things that can be missing from the outside of the aircraft)

27
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What is an MEL? An MMEL?

Minimum Equipment List (things that can be missing from the inside of the aircraft) Master Minimum Equipment List (the list provided in the AFM from the Manufacturer i.e. Boeing)

28
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121.357 Can you MEL the airborne wx radar?

Yes.

29
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METAR? When do they come out?

Routine Meteorological Aviation Report comes out on the hour (on the 55's or so)

30
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COR? AMD? SPECI?

Correction, Amendment, Special (when there is significant improvement or deterioration in airport wx conditions).

31
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Conditional Remarks?

Forecast change indicators

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TEMPO, PROB30/PROB40, BECMG?

TEMPO- Changes expected for less than an hour and for less than half of the period listed. PROB30 - 30%-39% and PROB40 40%- 49% TEMPO is the 50% chance. BECMG - change expected.

33
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TAF? When are they updated? How long are they valid?

Terminal Aerodrome Forecast, Every 6 hours: 0600 1200 1800 0000, 24 to 30 hours (we know it varies)

34
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AIRMET? 3 types?

  • Airmen's Meteorological information is an in-flight weather advisory issued by the Aviation Weather Center that covers weather hazards that are significant but don't quite reach the severity of a SIGMET. Updated every 6 hours or as necessary.

  • AIRMET Sierra (IFR/Mountain Obscuration): Widespread areas of IFR conditions (ceilings below 1,000 ft and/or visibility below 3 miles) and/or extensive mountain obscuration due to clouds, precipitation, or haze.

  • AIRMET Tango (Turbulence): Moderate turbulence, sustained surface winds of 30 knots or greater, and/or low-level wind shear — basically the "bumpy ride" advisory.

  • AIRMET Zulu (Icing): Moderate icing conditions and freezing levels.

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SIGMET?

Significant meteorological information that is a wx advisory concerning safety of all aircraft. Issued as needed and valid up to 4 hours or 6 depending on what they contain (hurricane or volcanic ash info.)

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Convective SIGMET?

Issued for just that....CONVECTIVE activity....ie. embedded thunderstorms, a line of thunderstorms (surface winds greater than or equal to 50 kts., surface hail 3/4 in. or greater or tornadoes).

37
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What is LLWAS?

LOW LEVEL WINDSHEAR ALERTING SYSTEM

38
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High Level Sig altitude range? Low sig?

High Significant: FL250- FL600 Low Sigs: Surface -FL240

39
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What is your Minimum fuel? (Hint- BAR) 121.639

"BURN fuel" (to destination) "ALTERNATE" (to furthest) "RESERVE" (45 minutes)

40
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What 5 items must be on a dispatch flight release? (Hint- DAMIT) 121.687

Destination, intermediate, alternates (all airports), A type of flight? (IFR or VFR), Minimum fuel, identification number (tail number), Trip number (flight number)

41
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What 3 items must the pilot carry with him/her to the destination? How long is it to be kept on file? (Hint-FDL) 121.695

Flight plan (ATC strip), Dispatch release, Load manifest and kept on file for 3 months

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How long does communication need to be kept on file? 121.711

30 days

43
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What does CFR stand for?

Code of Federal Regulations (14 Aeronautics and Space) (49 Transportation)

44
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What are the requirements to become a dispatcher? 65.61 (FAM flights 121.463)

Completion of an approved Dispatcher course (200 hours of instruction), passed the ADX (dispatcher knowledge test) and a practical test based on the Aircraft Dispatcher PTS (practical test standards).

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What is a precision approach?

An instrument approach and landing using precision lateral and vertical guidance. EX: ILS, PAR, GBAS, GLS

46
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What is a non-precision approach?

An instrument approach making use of ground beacons and aircraft equipment i.e. VOR, NDB, LOC

47
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What is DA(H)?

Decision altitude/height is a specified lowest height or altitude in an approach descent at which, if the required visual reference to continue the approach is not visible, the pilot must go missed.

48
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What is MDA(H)

Minimum Descent Altitude or Minimum Descent Height is a specified altitude or height in a NON-PRECISION approach below which descent must not be made without the required visual reference.

49
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What is the FAF?

Final Approach Fix. (Shown as a maltese cross on a Non-precision approach)

50
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What is the IAF?

Initial Approach Fix. It is the beginning of the initial approach segment on an instrument approach.

51
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What are 2 types of Thunderstorms?

  • Airmass and Steady State.

  • Airmass storm: Forms in weak wind shear; updraft & downdraft overlap, so rain falls through and kills the updraft. Short-lived (~20–30 min), usually not severe. Also called ordinary/single-cell.

  • Steady-state storm: Forms in strong wind shear, which tilts the storm and separates updraft from downdraft. Rain no longer chokes the inflow, so the storm sustains itself — longer-lived and more likely to become severe (multicell/supercell).

52
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What are the 3 stages of a Thunderstorm?

  • Cumulus (developing) stage – Warm, moist air rises (updraft only). Cloud builds vertically as condensation continues. No precipitation yet.

  • Mature stage – Storm's strongest/most dangerous stage. Both updrafts and downdrafts exist side by side. Heavy rain, lightning, gusty winds, hail possible. Cloud reaches the tropopause, often flattening into an anvil.

  • Dissipating stage – Downdrafts take over the whole storm, cutting off the updraft (its energy source). Rain and wind taper off; storm weakens and dies out.

53
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What are some of the MANY hazards of flying into a Thunderstorm?

Lightning, hail, tornadoes, turbulence, icing, microbursts

54
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What are our 6 take-off considerations?

S structural limit

F field length limit

C climb limit

O obstacle clearance limit

T tire limit

B brake energy

55
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All engines go...One engine in-op go...Rejected Take Off(RTO)

(V1, Vr, V2) (V1, Vevent, Vr, V2) (Vevent, V1)

56
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When taking off from a dry runway, you must clear the end of the runway by how much from the main landing gear? What about wet?

35 feet, 15 feet

57
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What are our 4 landing considerations?

S structural limit

A approach climb limit

L landing climb limit

F field length

58
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When landing, you should cross the threshold around how many feet above? (TCH)

50 feet

59
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When planning for landing, you must stop within how much for a dry runway? How much for wet?

121.195..."within 60 percent of the effective length of each runway from a point 50 feet above the intersection of the obstruction clearance plane and the runway"..

121.195... WET) when the appropriate weather reports and forecasts, or a combination thereof, indicate that the runways at the destination airport maybe wet or slippery at the estimated time of arrival unless the effective runway length at the destination airport is at least 115 percent of the runway length required...

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TORA?

Take off run available: The length of runway declared available and suitable for the ground run of an airplane taking off

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TODA?

Take off distance sarbie: The length of the takeoff run available plus the length of the clearway, if clearway is provided.

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ASDA?

Accelerate stop distance available: The length of the takeoff run available plus the length of the stopway, if stopway is provided

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LDA?

Landing distance available: The length of runway that is declared available and suitable for the ground run of an airplane landing.

64
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What do we include in our Pilot Briefing? 121.601

All available current reports or info on airport conditions and irregularities of navigation facilities that may affect the safety of flight and all available wx reports and forecasts.

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What do we mean by Adverse Wx conditions/ phenomena based on 121.601?

Clear Air Turbulence, thunderstorms and low altitude wind shear

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What is a UA? UUA?

Routine Upper Air Report (PIREP), Urgent Upper Air Report (URGENT PIREP)

67
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NOTAM?

Notices to Airmen (time sensitive information essential to safety)

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TFR?

Temporary Flight Restriction

69
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What is RVR? If listed, is it controlling? 121.655

Runway Visual Range, if reported, it is controlling.

70
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3 reporting points... (transmissometers)

touchdown, midpoint, rollout

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Suitable Airport?

Per ICAO it meets the requirements of ADEQUATE with winds and weather reports or forecasts or any combination there of indicating weather conditions are at or above operating minima as specified in the Operations Specifications AND the field condition reports indicate a safe landing can be accomplished at the time of the intended operation.

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Adequate Airport?

Adequate Airport means "an airport that an airplane operator may list with approval from the FAA because that airport meets the landing limitations of 121.197 and is either

(1) An airport that meets the requirements of part 139, subpart D of this chapter, excluding those that apply to aircraft rescue and firefighting service or

(2) A military airport that is active and operational.

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Exemption 3585? Now 17347 (section CO55 in the Ops Specs)

Permission obtained per operator from the FAA to plan flights with below minimums weather listed in conditional remarks of applicable weather reports and contingent on listing a second alternate that is

"golden". Not all operators have or even apply for these exemptions.

*we will talk more about this.

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ARFF?

Aircraft Rescue and Firefighting (Index based on aircraft length)

75
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Baby Captain? (High Minimums Captain) 121.652. What is up with him?

Less than 100 hours = increased landing minimums

Going to add 100/ ½ to his landing minimums. But not to his alternate (they can never be less than 300/1 though)

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Vevent

speed at which the event affecting V1 occurs

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V1

means the maximum speed in the takeoff at which the pilot must take the first action (apply brakes, reduce thrust, deploy speed brakes) to stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance. V, also means the minimum speed in the takeoff, following a failure of the critical engine at “V ef” at which the pilot can continue the takeoff and achieve the required height above the takeoff surface within the takeoff distance

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Vr

rotation speed

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V2:

take off safety speed

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Vmcg :

minimum speed on the ground, that directional control can be maintained, using only aerodynamic controls, with one engine inoperative

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Vmca :

minimum speed, whilst in the air, that directional control can be maintained with one engine inoperative

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Vmu :

minimum unstick speed

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Vso

stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration

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Vmo:

maximum operating limit speed

85
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Amendment to the release...changes made while we are flight following 121.631

Regulation references changes to weather...other data can be amended as well and initialed and time stamped by the dispatcher and the PIC.


86
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Whats the Difference between Dispatch Release and Flight Release

Dispatch Release (Domestic & Flag Operations)

  • Used by Part 121 domestic and flag carriers (scheduled airline operations) — 14 CFR 121.593, 121.687.

  • Requires a dispatch system with certificated aircraft dispatchers.

  • Joint operational control: the flight cannot be released without agreement from both the PIC and the dispatcher (14 CFR 121.533).

  • Contents are prescribed under 121.687 — includes things like aircraft nationality/registration, trip number, weather, fuel load, alternates, NOTAMs, etc.

  • The dispatcher retains authority throughout the flight to amend, delay, or cancel the release, and provides continuous flight following/monitoring.

Flight Release (Supplemental Operations)

  • Used by Part 121 supplemental operations (charter-type/non-scheduled Part 121 flying) — 14 CFR 121.597, 121.599, 121.689.

  • Does not require a licensed dispatcher.

  • The PIC has sole operational control authority — no shared/joint control requirement.

  • May involve a flight locator/flight following person/system, but that person doesn't share legal operational control the way a dispatcher does.

  • Contents are prescribed under 121.689 — similar informational content to a dispatch release (weather, fuel, alternates, etc.), but authority sits with the PIC alone.

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Explain RVSM

(Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum)

RVSM reduces the standard vertical separation between aircraft from 2,000 feet to 1,000 feet in airspace between FL290 and FL410 (29,000–41,000 ft).

Why it matters: This doubles the number of usable flight levels in that altitude band, allowing more aircraft to fly at fuel-efficient altitudes with less congestion.

Requirements to operate in RVSM airspace

  • Aircraft must have RVSM-certified equipment (precise altimetry systems, autopilot altitude-hold capability)

  • Operator must have specific FAA authorization (RVSM approval in Ops Specs/LOA)

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Explain Transition altitude in NAS:

The altitude where pilots switch from a local altimeter setting to standard 29.92" Hg, and start using Flight Levels instead of feet MSL.

  • U.S.: Fixed at 18,000 ft nationwide.

  • Climbing through it → set 29.92 → call altitude as FL (e.g., FL190).

  • Descending through it → reset to local altimeter setting.

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Describe 121.687 and the items required on the dispatch release (DAMIT)

§121.687 — Dispatch Release: Flag and Domestic Operations

DAMIT (5 required items):

  • D – Departure, intermediate stop, destination, and alternate airports

  • A – Aircraft identification number (tail number)

  • M – Minimum fuel supply

  • I – IFR/VFR (type of operation)

  • T – Trip number

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How long can a dispatcher be legally be scheduled for?

  • No dispatcher can be scheduled for more than 10 consecutive hours of duty in a shift (except emergencies).

  • If scheduled for more than 10 hours of duty in 24 consecutive hours, they must get at least an 8-hour rest period at or before the end of that 10-hour duty stretch.

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How many days in a row can a dispatcher work for?

a dispatcher can work up to 6 days in a row before being entitled to a 24-hour rest period, since any 7-day window must contain at least one full day off.

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Whats an adequate airport?

Certified under 14CFR part 139 (meeting the safety requirements for takeoff and landing for commercial and non commercial operations

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Whats a suitable Airport?

Adequate with winds and weather report or forecast or any combination there of indicating weather conditions are at or above operating minima as specified in the op spec and the field condition report indicate a safe landing can be accomplished at the time of the intended operations

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What is Operation Specifications?

Required by 14 CFR part 119.49
A. General
B. Enroute Authorization and limitations
C. Terminal instrument procedures and airport authorizations and limitations
D. and E. Maintenance (MEL/CDL, weight and Balance

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What are Standard Take off mins for 2 engines or less or 3 engines or less

  • 2 engines or fewer: 1 statute mile visibility

  • 3 engines or more: (3+): ½ statute mile visibility

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AIRMET vs SIGMET vs Convective Sigmet, whats the difference?

  • AIRMET: Moderate hazards; mainly affects small/GA aircraft. Categories: Sierra (IFR/mtn obscuration), Tango (turbulence, winds ≥30 kt), Zulu (icing).

  • Scheduled: issued every 6 hours, amended as needed

  • Valid for 6 hours

  • SIGMET: Severe hazards; affects all aircraft, including airliners. Covers severe turbulence/icing, dust/sandstorms, volcanic ash.

  • Unscheduled — issued as needed when criteria are met

  • Valid for 4 hours (6 hours for hurricane-related SIGMETs)

  • Convective SIGMET: Subtype for thunderstorm hazards — severe/embedded/lines of storms, tornadoes, hail ≥¾", or gusts ≥50 kt.

  • Scheduled: issued hourly at H+55 (with unscheduled specials/amendments as needed)

  • Valid for 2 hours

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What do we include in our pilot briefing? 121.601

  • (a) Airport conditions & nav facility irregularities

  • (b) Pre-flight: weather reports/forecasts (turbulence, thunderstorms, wind shear)

  • (c) In-flight: updates on weather & facility irregularities

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What do we mean Adverse Wx conditions/phenomena based on 121.601

A: The regulation specifically names three hazards the dispatcher must watch for and report to the PIC:

  • Clear air turbulence (CAT) – turbulence with no visual warning (no clouds), often near jet streams

  • Thunderstorms – convective activity that can bring severe turbulence, hail, icing, lightning, and wind shear

  • Low-altitude wind shear – sudden wind speed/direction changes near the surface, especially dangerous during takeoff and landing