HAN 417 Midterm Practice Questions

The proper CPR depth for adults is ___________ inches.

A. 1

B. 1.5

C. 2

D. At least 2

D. At least 2

True or false: An AED can be used on a patient lying in snow

True

When assessing for breathing and pulse, you should check carotid pulse for no more than ___________seconds.

A. 2

B. 5

C. 10

D. 20

C. 10

True or False: cardiac output is the amount of blood pumped per minute

True

When checking for a pulse on an infant, you should check the _________artery.

A. Carotid

B. Brachial

C. Pedal

D. Femoral

B. Brachial

The correct compression depth for a child is:

A. 2 inches or 1/3 AP diameter

B. 1.5 inches or 1/3 AP diameter

C. 3 inches or 1/2 AP diameter

A. 2 inches or 1/3 AP diameter

True or False: a compression rate of 100-200 compressions per minute is the same for adults, children, and infants

True

What is the compression-to-ventilation ratio for a single rescuer of a 3-year-old child?

A. 15:1

B. 15:2

C. 30:1

D. 30:2

D. 30:2

True or false: the SA node is the primary pacemaker of the heart

True

The amount of blood pumper per minute is known as:

A. Cardiac output

B. Stroke volume

C. Systemic vascular resistance

D. Heart rate

A. Cardiac output

A condition where there is reduced blood flow to the heart muscle due to a partial blockage of the Coronary Arteries is known as:

A. Myocardial infarction

B. Myocardial ischemia

C. Myocardial injury

D. Myocardial dead-end

B. Myocardial ischemia

True or False: pathophysiology is the study of how disease processes affect the normal functions of the body.

True

True or False: myocardial ischemia always causes permanent damage.

False

myocardial infarction always causes permanent damage

Which of the following is NOT a typical symptom of myocardial infarction?

A. Chest pain

B. Diarrhea

C. Nausea/vomiting

D. Diaphoresis (sweating)

E. Dizziness/syncope

B. Diarrhea

In the pre-hospital setting of a chest pain patient, a 12-lead EKG should be performed within __________minutes of patient contact.

A. 10

B. 15

C. 20

D. 30

A. 10

Which of the following is NOT part of the MONA acronym?

A. Oxygen

B. Aspirin

C. Morphine

D. Assessment

D. Assessment

The most common cause of cardiogenic shock is:

A. Electrolyte imbalances

B. Blunt trauma

C. Dehydration

D. Massive myocardial infarction

D. Massive myocardial infarction

Which of the following medications is a Beta-Blocker?

A. Lisinopril

B. Metoprolol

C. Heparin

D. Aspirin

B. Metoprolol

True or false: beta blockers are negative chronotropes, negative inotropes and negative dromotropes.

True

What is the main reason nitrates (like nitroglycerin) are used in cardiac patients?

A. Lower blood pressure by blocking beta receptors

B. Reduce chest pain by dilating blood vessels

C. Increase heart rate by stimulating the SA node

D. Thin the blood to prevent clot formation

B. Reduce chest pain by dilating blood vessels

True or false: anticoagulants work by dissolving existing blood clots.

False

True or false: epinephrine is considered a positive inotrop, positive chronotrope, and positive dromotrope.

True

Which emergency medication is given to stop life-threatening bradycardia?

A. Atropine

B. Metoprolol

C. Amiodarone

D. Heparin

A. Atropine

Which of the following is a common side effect of nitrates (such as nitroglycerin)?

A. Hypertension

B. Hyperkalemia

C. Vomiting

D. Headache

D. Headache

Beta-1 receptors primarily affect the __________, while beta-2 receptors primarily affect the ______________.

A. Brain, heart

B. Heart, lungs

C. Lungs, heart

D. Heart, brain

B. Heart, lungs

________________ is defined as the ability of pacemaker cells to spontaneously generate their own electrical impulses, and is specific to pacemaker cells.

A. Excitability

B. Contractility

C. Conductivity

D. Automaticity

D. Automaticity

_______________ is responsible for initiating depolarization by rapidly entering cardiac cells, creating an action potential.

A. Magnesium

B. Sodium

C. Potassium

D. Calcium

B. Sodium

True or false: a cardiac cell cannot respond to an electrical stimulus until they have been repolarized.

True

The ____________ pump actively moves sodium out of the cell and potassium into the cell during phase 4 of the action potential.

A. Calcium-magnesium

B. Gatorade-Powerade

C. Gallway-Edouard-Hoffman-Peralta

D. Sodium-potassium

D. Sodium-potassium

The intrinsic firing rate of the SA node is:

A. 30-40

B. 40-60

C. 60-100

D. 100-120

C. 60-100

On an EKG tracing, the QRS complex represents __________________.

A. Atrial depolarization

B. Atrial repolarization

C. Ventricular depolarization

D. Ventricular repolarization

C. Ventricular depolarization

The flat segment between cardiac cycles is known as the ____________.

A. Indicator line

B. Sodium-potassium line

C. Isoelectric line

D. Electrical conduction line

C. Isoelectric line

The ______________ is the period during ventricular repolarization when repolarization is almost complete, and the cells may respond to a strong stimulus.

A. Absolute refractory period

B. Relative refractory period

C. Partial refractory period

D. Complete refractory period

B. Relative refractory period

The _____________ represents ventricular repolarization on en EKG.

A. P wave

B. QRS complex

C. T wave

D. U wave

C. T wave

On an EKG paper, one small box represents:

A. 0.01 seconds

B. 0.04 seconds

C. 0.10 seconds

D. 0.25 seconds

B. 0.04 seconds

Leads I, II, III are known as:

A. Agumented leads

B. Precordial leads

C. Posteriod leads

D. Bipolar leads

D. Bipolar leads

The triangle formed by lead placement, making an equilateral triangle with the heart in the center to help visualize the direction of impulses is known as:

A. EKG triangle

B. Galway's triangle

C. Einthoven's triangle

D. Beethoven's triangle

C. Einthoven's triangle

During systole, which of the following occurs?

A. The ventricles contract and eject blood into the arteries

B. The ventricles relax and fill with blood

C. The atria contract while the ventricles remain relaxed

D. The heart is completely at rest

A. The ventricles contact and eject the blood into the arteries

Which statement best describes diastole?

A. It is the phase of the cardiac cycle when the heart contracts

B. It is the phase when the atria fill while the ventricles contrast

C. It is the phase when the heart muscle relaxes and the chambers fill with blood

D. It is the period of time between two heartbeats when no activity occurs

C. It is the phase when the heart muscle releases and the chambers fill with blood

Which of the following symptoms is most characteristic of cardiogenic shock?

A. High blood pressure and bounding pulse

B. Cold, clammy skin and weak pulses

C. Increase urine output and flushed skin

D. Slow heart rate and normal respiratory rate

B. Cold, clammy skin and weak pulses

Left-sided heart failure primarily affects which of the following?

A. The lungs, leading to pulmonary congestion

B. Te liver, leading to hepatomegaly

C. The gastrointestinal system, leading to nausea

D. The lower extremities, causing severe swelling

A. The lungs, leading to pulmonary congestion

Which organ is most affected by right-sided heart failure?

A. The lungs

B. The liver

C. The kidneys

D. The pancreas

B. The liver

Which of the following measurements is typically reduced in systolic heart failure?

A. Pulmonary artery pressure

B. Ejection fraction

C. Blood viscosity

D. Systemic vascular resistance

B. Ejection fraction

Diastolic heart failure is often associated with which of the following conditions?

A. Hypertension

B. Pulmonary embolism

C. Deep vein thrombosis

D. Hypotension

A. Hypertension

Which of the following is a common cause of ventricular tachycardia (VT)?

A. Hypokalemia or hyperkalemia

B. Sinus bradycardia

C. Low cardiac output

D. Mitral valve stenosis

A. Hypokalemia or hyperkalemia

Which ECG findings is characteristic of VT?

A. Narrow QRS complexes with irregular rhythm

B. Wide QRS complexes with a fast heart rate

C. Prolonged PR intervals with dropped beats

D. Normal sinus rhythm with occasional extra beats

B. Wide QRS complexes with a fast heart rate

How long does troponin typically remain elevated after an MI?

A. 24 hours

B. 3-5 days

C. 7-10 days

D. 14-21 days

C. 7-10 days

Which type of beta receptor is primarily found in the heart and increases heart rate when stimulated?

A. Beta-1

B. Beta-2

C. Beta-3

D. Alpha-1

A. Beta-1

Which of the following medications is a selective beta-1 blocker used to treat hypertension and heart failure?

A. Albuterol

B. Propranolol

C. Metoprolol

D. Epinephrine

C. Metoprolol

Which of the following is a common side effect of nitrate therapy?

A. Hypertension

B. Reflex tachycardia

C. Bradycardia

D. Hyperkalemia

B. Reflex tachycardia

Which class of antiarrhythmic drugs acts by blocking sodium channels in cardiac cells.

A. Class 1

B. Class 2

C. Class 3

D. Class 4

A. Class 1

Which of the following medications is a commonly used potassium channel blocker?

A. Amiodarone

B. Metoprolol

C. Amlodipine

D. Lidocaine

A. Amiodarone

Which of the following is a potential side effect of calcium channel blockers?

A. Hyperkalemia

B. Peripheral edema

C. Dry cough

D. Tachyarrhythmia

B. Peripheral edema

Which of the following medications is an ACE inhibitor?

A. Losartan

B. Lisinopril

C. Amlodipine

D. Metoprolol

B. Lisinopril

Which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with a prolonged QT interval?

A. Atrial fibrillation

B. Torsades de pointes

C. Ventricular tachycardia

D. First-degree AV block

B. Torsades de pointes

Which of the following waves normally shows a positive deflection in Lead II?

A. P wave and T wave

B. Q wave and S wave

C. Only the QRS complex

D. U wave and PR segment

A. P wave and T wave

What is a major disadvantage of hardwired EKG monitoring compared to telemetry?

A. It provides less accurate readings

B. It limits patient mobility

C. It is more expensive

D. It does not continuously record rhythm

B. It limits patient mobility

How does telemetry EKG monitoring transmit data?

A. Through direct cable connections

B. Using a wireless transmitter that sends signals to a central monitoring station

C. By recording data on paper strips for later review

D. Through a single-lead handheld device

B. Using a wireless transmitter that sends signals to a central monitoring station

What does each small box on EKG paper represent in time?

A. 0.02 seconds

B. 0.04 seconds

C. 0.10 seconds

D. 0.20 seconds

B. 0.04 seconds

Which part of the EKG represents atrial depolarization?

A. P wave

B. QRS complex

C. T wave

D. PR interval

A. P wave

A normal PR interval should be:

A. 0.12-0.20 seconds

B. 0.20-0.30 seconds

C. Less than 0.08 seconds

D. Greater than 0.30 seconds

A. 0.12-0.20 seconds

Which of the following is a sign of systemic venous congestion in right-sided heart failure?

A. Crackles in the lungs

B. Jugular vein distention (JVD)

C. Wheezing

D. Cyanosis

B. Jugular vein dissension (JVD)

Which of the following can cause a false high heart rate alarm on a cardiac monitor?

A. Loose or misplaced electrodes

B. Sinus bradycardia

C. Dehydration

D. Hypothermia

A. Loose or misplaced electrodes

Deoxygenated blood from the body enters the heart through which vessels?

A. Pulmonary veins

B. Pulmonary arteries

C. Superior and inferior vena cava

D. Coronary arteries

C. Superior and inferior vena Cava

Which heart valve prevents blood from flowing back into the right ventricle from the pulmonary artery?

A. Aortic valve

B. Pulmonary valve

C. Tricuspid valve

D. Mitral valve

B. Pulmonary valve