RPD Midterm

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333 Terms

1
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Which of the following is NOT an indication for RPD?

a. short span edentulous areas

b. lacking posterior support

c. periodontal disease

d. need for cross arch stabilization

e. excessive bone loss within residual ridge

f. length of treatment

g. immediate need to replace teeth

h. patient desire

a (Long span is indication)

2
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Select the INCORRECT statement.

a. the primary goal of RPD is the preservation of remaining teeth not the meticulous replacement of what has been lost

b. excessive bone loss within the residual ridge is an indication for RPD

c. support is the resistance to displacement away from teeth and soft tissue

d. the matrix is considered the "female" in intra-coronal clasps

e. a goal of RPD is to establish or increase the masticatory efficiency of the teeth

c (retention)

3
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Resistance to displacement away from teeth and soft tissue

a. retention

b. support

c. stability

a

4
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resistance to displacement toward the teeth and soft tissues

a. retention

b. support

c. stability

b

5
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resistance to displacement in a medio-lateral or anterio-posterior direction

a. retention

b. support

c. stability

c

6
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Select the statement that describes tooth-supported RPDs.

a. distal extension edentulous areas

b. supported by teeth and soft tissue

c. teeth anterior and posterior to the edentulous areas

d. supported by teeth, minimum tissue support

e. A and B

f. C and D

f

7
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Select the statement that describes tooth-tissue supported RPDs.

a. distal extension edentulous areas

b. supported by teeth and soft tissue

c. teeth anterior and posterior to the edentulous areas

d. supported by teeth, minimum tissue support

e. A and B

f. C and D

e

8
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Difference between tooth supported vs tooth tissue supported RPD. Which Kennedy Class

Tooth tissue supported: Class 1 and 2

Tooth supported: Class 3 and 4

9
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All of the following are true for an interim, transitional or treatment partial denture EXCEPT:

a. short term prosthesis

b. for esthetics and function during disease control

c. contraindicated for use during healing time following extractions

d. soft tissue conditioner is needed

e. wear until definitive treatment is rendered

c (wear during healing time after extractions)

10
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The retentive arm is for _______

The reciprocal arm is for _______

retention

stabilization

11
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The matrix is the "male" in the intra-coronal RPD retainer. The matrix is within the crown of the tooth.

a. both are true

b. both are false

c. first is true, second is false

d. first is false, second is true

d (matrix is the "female")

12
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The patrix is the "male" in an intra-coronal RPD retainer. The patrix is located in the removable prosthesis.

a. both are true

b. both are false

c. first is true, second is false

d. first is false, second is true

a

13
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which kennedy classification is the only class that refers to more than one edentulous area?

a. class I

b. class II

c. class III

d. class IV

a

14
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- bilateral edentulous areas posterior to remaining teeth

- bilateral distal extension

a. class I

b. class II

c. class III

d. class IV

a

15
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- unilateral edentulous areas posterior to the remaining teeth

- unilateral distal extension

a. class I

b. class II

c. class III

d. class IV

b

16
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- edentulous area with natural teeth both anterior and posterior to it

a. class I

b. class II

c. class III

d. class IV

c

17
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- edentulous areas located anterior to the remaining natural teeth

- must cross the midline

a. class I

b. class II

c. class III

d. class IV

d

18
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which class is the only class that does not accept modifications?

a. class I

b. class II

c. class III

d. class IV

d

19
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Select the correct statement regarding kennedy classification.

a. the most anterior edentulous area always determines the class

b. if a tooth is missing but NOT being replaced, it is still considered in the class

c. class determination should come before possible extraction

d. if 3rd molar is present, and it will be used as an abutment, it must be considered in the class

d

a- most posterior;

b- do not considering teeth not being replaced in the class;

c- class determination should come after extraction)

20
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Order the correct treatment plan sequence when seeing patients.

I. teeth restorations

II. caries control

III. replacement of missing teeth

IV. periodontal disease management

a. II, IV, I, III

b. II, I, IV, III

c. II, IV, III, I

d. II, I, III, IV

a

21
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Order the correct sequence for the treatment steps for an RPD.

I. fitting the metal framework/jaw relation records

II. delivery

III. examination of patient/study models

IV. survey and design RPD

V. teeth try in

VI. mouth preparation and final impression

a. I, IV, VI, III, V, II

b. IV, III, V, I, VI, II

c. III, IV, V, VI, I, II

d. III, IV, VI, I, V, II

e. none of the above are correct

d

22
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(T/F) if intercuspal relationship is comfortable and well-defined and all posterior teeth occlude precisely, "short span class I or II," it may be possible to locate the cast in the intercuspal position w/o a wax rim.

false (short span class III or class IV)

23
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If there are insufficient teeth remaining for a intercuspal record, "all class I, II, and long span class III, IV," will need occlusal wax rims. These are to be adjusted extra-orally in the wet lab in clinic.

a. both are true

b. both are false

c. first is true, second is false

d. first is false, second is true

c (adjusted in patient's mouth)

24
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Which component of an RPD purpose is to connect components of one side of the arch with those of the other side?

a. major connector

b. minor connector

c. rest seats

d. direct retainer

e. indirect retainer

a

25
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Which of the following is NOT a requirement for a major connector?

a. be rigid

b. protect soft tissues and teeth

c. provide support

d. transfer forces (cross arch stability)

e. direct retention

f. promote patient comfort

e (indirect retention)

26
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The border for major connector for _______ arch should be 6mm from free gingiva or extend to lingual surface of remaining teeth

The border for major connector for _______ arch should be 3-4mm from free gingiva or extend to lingual surface of remaining teeth

Maxillary

Mandibular

27
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Your RPD has caused tooth mobility and bone loss in your patient. Which one of the requirements of the major connector was not met?

a. it did not protect the soft tissues and teeth causing periodontal issues

b. it did not have enough rigidity causing it to be flexible

c. it did not provide support to the abutment teeth causing them to be loose

d. it did not provide indirect retention

b

28
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The major connector in the maxillary arch should be 3-4 mm from the free gingiva. While, the major connector in the mandibular arch should be 6 mm from the free gingiva.

a. both are true

b. both are false

c. first is true, second is false

d. first is false, second is true

b (switched; maxillary - 6 mm; mandibular 3-4 mm)

29
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Select the correct statement regarding major connectors.

a. the border of the major connector should be perpendicular to the gingival margin of remaining teeth

b. the major connector should cross the gingival margin at a 45 degree angle to prevent inflammation

c. the major connector should be as symmetric as possible to provide patient comfort

d. the major connector should be placed on the soft palate for maximum retention

e. all of the above are false

c

Should be parallel, 90 degrees, and should avoid soft palate placement (gagging)

30
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Which of the following statements regarding the major connector is false?

a. it should be as symmetric as possible

b. it should be made as to reduce any interference with the rugae area or tongue

c. it must not interfere with the soft palate

d. pointy edges

e. tori should be avoided

d (smooth rounded edges)

31
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Narrow half oval cross section

Limited to short span class 2 cases

Should not placed anterior to 2nd premolar

a. palatal bar

b. palatal strap

c. antero-posterior palatal bar

d. antero-posterior palatal strap

e. horseshoe

f. complete palatal strap

a

32
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You are making an RPD for your patient. She has a short edentulous area with natural teeth both anterior and posterior to it. Which maxillary major connector should you make for her?

a. palatal bar

b. palatal strap

c. antero-posterior palatal bar

d. antero-posterior palatal strap

e. horseshoe

f. complete palatal strap

a (short span class III; indication for palatal bar)

33
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All of the following statements regarding the maxillary major connector, palatal bar, are true EXCEPT:

a. Should not be placed anterior to the 2nd premolar due to patient discomfort and issues with phonetics

b. Must be avoided except for long edentulous spans

c. Usually uncomfortable for patients due to its bulk

d. Provides little vertical support

b

34
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Your RPD patient is classified as a class II. which of the following maxillary major connectors could you use? select all that apply

a. palatal bar

b. palatal strap

c. antero-posterior palatal bar

d. antero-posterior palatal strap

e. horseshoe

f. complete palatal strap

b, d

35
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- wide band of metal with thin cross section

- minimum 8 mm antero-posterior for rigidity

a. palatal bar

b. palatal strap

c. antero-posterior palatal bar

d. antero-posterior palatal strap

e. horseshoe

f. complete palatal strap

b

36
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- not used in class I cases

a. palatal bar

b. palatal strap

c. antero-posterior palatal bar

d. antero-posterior palatal strap

e. horseshoe

f. complete palatal strap

b

37
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which of the following is NOT an advantage for the palatal strap?

a. most versatile

b. used with tori

c. resistance to bend

d. thin and strong (1.5 mm)

e. well accepted by patient

b (advantage for A-P palatal bar)

38
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In the antero-posterior palatal strap, the anterior bar is relatively flat similar to the strap. The posterior bar is "half-oval" similar to the bar.

a. both are true

b. both are false

c. first is true, second is false

d. first is false, second is true

a

39
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Which of the following major connectors shows the "L-beam effect"?

a. palatal bar

b. palatal strap

c. antero-posterior palatal bar

d. antero-posterior palatal strap

e. horseshoe

f. complete palatal strap

c

40
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which of the following is not an indication/advantage for the A-P palatal bar?

a. rigidity

b. minimize soft tissue coverage

c. used with tori

d. used when retention is not a major consideration

d (support)

41
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All of the following are contraindications/disadvantages for the A-P palatal bar EXCEPT:

a. bulky

b. tendency to deform or flex

c. little support from the palate

d. should not be used with periodontal disease

e. should not be considered as first choice

b (disadvantage for horseshoe palatal strap)

42
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- used as first choice for most of the cases with numerous missing teeth

a. palatal bar

b. palatal strap

c. antero-posterior palatal bar

d. antero-posterior palatal strap

e. horseshoe

f. complete palatal strap

d

43
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each strap in the A-P palatal strap is ____ wide.

a. 4 mm

b. 6 mm

c. 8 mm

d. 10 mm

c

44
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(T/F) the A-P palatal strap is used in the presence of palatal tori.

true

45
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The following are advantages/indications for what type of major connector?

- reasonably strong

- several anterior teeth being replaced

- minimize soft tissue coverage

- used with tori bony projection

- used when support is not a major consideration

a. palatal bar

b. palatal strap

c. antero-posterior palatal bar

d. antero-posterior palatal strap

e. horseshoe

f. complete palatal strap

e

46
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the following are disadvantages/contraindications for which of the following major connectors?

- tendency to deform or flex

- thick in the anterior area

- not good for cross-arch stabilization

- poor choice for class I and II

a. palatal bar

b. palatal strap

c. antero-posterior palatal bar

d. antero-posterior palatal strap

e. horseshoe

f. complete palatal strap

e

47
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the following are advantages for what type of major connector?

- most versatile

- resistance to bend

- thin and strong = 1.5 mm

- well accepted by patient

a. palatal bar

b. palatal strap

c. antero-posterior palatal bar

d. antero-posterior palatal strap

e. horseshoe

f. complete palatal strap

b

48
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the following are advantages/indications for which major connector?

- rigidity

- minimize soft tissue coverage

- used with tori

- used when support is not a major consideration

a. palatal bar

b. palatal strap

c. antero-posterior palatal bar

d. antero-posterior palatal strap

e. horseshoe

f. complete palatal strap

c

49
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the following are disadvantages/contraindications for which major connector?

- bulky

- little support from palate

- should not be used with periodontal disease

- should not be considered as first choice

a. palatal bar

b. palatal strap

c. antero-posterior palatal bar

d. antero-posterior palatal strap

e. horseshoe

f. complete palatal strap

c

50
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the following are indications/advantages for which type of major connector?

- ultimate rigidity & support

- thin comfortable plate

- enhance thermal conductivity

- indicate in class I cases

- periodontal problem for remaining teeth

- when ridge height is minimum

- we can do tori window

a. palatal bar

b. palatal strap

c. antero-posterior palatal bar

d. antero-posterior palatal strap

e. horseshoe

f. complete palatal strap

f

51
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the following are disadvantages/contraindications for which type of major connector?

- some sort of tissue reaction

- oral hygiene "bead line"

a. palatal bar

b. palatal strap

c. antero-posterior palatal bar

d. antero-posterior palatal strap

e. horseshoe

f. complete palatal strap

f

52
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Select the correct statement regarding maxillary major connectors.

a. periodontal support of weak teeth, less palate should be covered

b. short span distal extension, rigidity is more critical

c. final selection of connector based upon number and location of missing teeth

d. when torus is present, A/P palatal bar or complete strap may be used

e. palatal strap is rarely indicated, too bulky and uncomfortable

c

(a- more palate should be covered; b- long span; d- A/P palatal strap or horseshoe; e- palatal bar)

53
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- most frequently used

- at least 8-9 mm space available between gingival margins of the teeth and floor of the mouth

a. lingual bar

b. lingual plate

c. double lingual bar

d. labial bar

a

54
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- indicated for tooth-supported RPDs UNLESS there is no space

a. lingual bar

b. lingual plate

c. double lingual bar

d. labial bar

a

55
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- half bear cross section with widest part in the inferior border

- comfortable

- less plaque accumulation

- can flex and deform if not done correctly

a. lingual bar

b. lingual plate

c. double lingual bar

d. labial bar

a

56
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- gives scalloped appearance

- knife edge finish to prevent annoying the tongue

- indicated for periodontal compromised teeth

a. lingual bar

b. lingual plate

c. double lingual bar

d. labial bar

b

57
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- used when there is insufficient vertical depth

- supported by rests located no further posterior than the mesial fossae of the first premolars

a. lingual bar

b. lingual plate

c. double lingual bar

d. labial bar

b

58
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- displays characteristics of lingual plate and bar joined by minor connector

a. lingual bar

b. lingual plate

c. double lingual bar

d. labial bar

c

59
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- upper component is 2-3 mm in height and 1 mm thick

a. lingual bar

b. lingual plate

c. double lingual bar

d. labial bar

c

60
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- when splint of anterior teeth is indicated but wide interproximal spaces

- less damage to soft tissue

a. lingual bar

b. lingual plate

c. double lingual bar

d. labial bar

c

61
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- severe lingual inclined of premolars and/or anterior teeth

- big lingual tori or soft tissue undercut cannot be corrected

- rarely used since it is not esthetically pleasing

a. lingual bar

b. lingual plate

c. double lingual bar

d. labial bar

d

62
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(T/F) for tooth-supported RPDs, the double lingual bar is most indicated if space is available.

(T/F) When insufficient room between the floor of the mouth and the free gingival margin is less than 8 mm, the lingual plate is most indicated

false (lingual bar)

true

63
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(T/F) when anterior teeth present with reduced periodontal support, the lingual plate is most indicated

true

64
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(T/F) When expecting tooth loss, the lingual bar is the most indicated

false (lingual plate)

65
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(T/F) when indirect retention is needed (class I and II), the lingual bar is most indicated

false (lingual plate)

66
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(T/F) when diastemas are present, interrupted lingual plate or bar are indicated

true

67
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(T/F) labial bar is rarely indicated

true

68
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In the maxillary arch, the distal extension base must be extended the entire length of the ridge and should cover the tuberosity. The minor connector should be placed as far anteriorly as possible.

a. both are true

b. both are false

c. first is true, second is false

d. first is false, second is true

c (posteriorly)

69
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in the mandibular arch, the distal extension base must cover the retromolar pads. The minor connector should extend 2/3 the length of the edentulous ridge.

a. both are true

b. both are false

c. first is true, second is false

d. first is false, second is true

a

70
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Finish lines with major connector joining the denture base:

- must be >90 degrees for retention

a. external finish line

b. internal finish line

a

71
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Finish lines with major connector joining the denture base:

- must be <90 degrees

a. external finish line

b. internal finish line

b

72
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necessary to prevent bending during processing/packing of the acrylic in distal extension cases

tissue stops

73
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- part of retainers, connected to the retentive clasp and provide support

a. primary rests

b. secondary rests

a

74
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- indirect retainers used in the distal extension cases like class I, II and long class IV which provide stability

a. primary rests

b. secondary rests

b

75
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- placed on the buccal

- passes undercut apically

a. retentive arm

b. reciprocal arm

a

76
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- only the clasp terminus should engage the undercut

a. retentive arm

b. reciprocal arm

a

77
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- on the lingual side of the tooth

- provides stability

a. retentive arm

b. reciprocal arm

b

78
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- must be rigid, contact the tooth at or occlusally to height of contours

a. retentive arm

b. reciprocal arm

b

79
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should contact the tooth first

a. retentive arm

b. reciprocal arm

b

80
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the minor connector serves as all of the following EXCEPT:

a. guide planes

b. reciprocal elements

c. rest seats

d. approach arm

e. mechanical retention of denture base

c

81
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which of the following are requirements of clasp assembly:

I. retention

II. support

III. tensile strength

IV. stability

V. reciprocation

VI. encirclement

VII. passivity

a. I, II, III, IV, V and VII

b. II, IV and V

c. I, II, III, IV, V, VI and VII

d. I, II, IV, V, VI and VII

d

82
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select the statement that is false

a. the more length the clasp assembly has, the more retentive it is

b. as the diameter of the clasp assembly increase, the retention increases

c. wrought wire clasps have 25% greater tensile strength that cast alloy clasps

d. wrought wire clasps are used in smaller diameters to provide greater flexibility w/o fracture

b (as the diameter of the retentive clasp increases, the retention decreases)

83
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order the materials for clasps from least flexible to most flexible:

1. gold

2. WW

3. CrCO

3, 1, 2

84
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(T/F) as the clasp becomes more flexible, more force is transmitted to the abutment tooth but with less lateral and vertical forces to the residual ridges

false (as the clasp becomes more flexible, less force is transmitted to the abutment tooth but with more lateral and vertical forces to the residual ridges)

85
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select the correct statement about clasp assembly.

a. supportive components of the clasp are apical to the height of contour

b. the retentive arm should contact the tooth prior to the reciprocative arm

c. the clasp must encircle at least 270 degrees of the tooth circumference

d. clasp must contact at 3 widely separated areas

e. the reciprocative arm is active only when dislodging forces are applied

d (a- occlusal; b- switched; c- 180 degrees; e- retentive arm)

86
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most tooth-supported class ____ don't have a fulcrum line.

a. I

b. II

c. III

d. IV

c

87
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The indirect retainer should be placed perpendicular and forward to the fulcrum line. The closer the indirect retainer is to the fulcrum line, the more effective it is.

a. both are true

b. both are false

c. first is true, second is false

d. first is false, second is true

c (greater the distance from the fulcrum line = more effective the indirect retainer)

88
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(T/F) there can only be 1 indirect retainer in an RPD

false (can have more than 1)

89
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- most common type used

- engages an undercut that is far from the edentulous space

- never used in distal extension

a. simple circlet

b. reverse circlet

c. multiple circlet

d. embrasure clasps

e. ring circlet

f. fish hook design

g. onlay clasp

a

90
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- used when undercuts are adjacent to edentulous space

- can be used when infrabulge is contraindicated in class I and II

a. simple circlet

b. reverse circlet

c. multiple circlet

d. embrasure clasps

e. ring circlet

f. fish hook design

g. onlay clasp

b

91
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- indicated when principal abutment is periodontally compromised

a. simple circlet

b. reverse circlet

c. multiple circlet

d. embrasure clasps

e. ring circlet

f. fish hook design

g. onlay clasp

c

92
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- needs teeth prepped for minor connector

a. simple circlet

b. reverse circlet

c. multiple circlet

d. embrasure clasps

e. ring circlet

f. fish hook design

g. onlay clasp

d

93
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- indicated with tipped mandibular molar

- can't use with tissue undercut

a. simple circlet

b. reverse circlet

c. multiple circlet

d. embrasure clasps

e. ring circlet

f. fish hook design

g. onlay clasp

e

94
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- retentive arm loops back

- hard to use with short crown

a. simple circlet

b. reverse circlet

c. multiple circlet

d. embrasure clasps

e. ring circlet

f. fish hook design

g. onlay clasp

f

95
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- rest covers the entire occlusal surface

- used to correct occlusal plane

- covered with gold/acrylic to prevent wear

a. simple circlet

b. reverse circlet

c. multiple circlet

d. embrasure clasps

e. ring circlet

f. fish hook design

g. onlay clasp

g

96
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a patient has a #30 that is tipped slightly lingual. which clasp type do you use?

a. simple circlet

b. reverse circlet

c. multiple circlet

d. embrasure clasps

e. ring circlet

f. fish hook design

g. onlay clasp

e

97
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a patient comes in, needing a RPD. the tooth you want to place the abutment on is periodontally compromised. which clasp type do you use?

a. simple circlet

b. reverse circlet

c. multiple circlet

d. embrasure clasps

e. ring circlet

f. fish hook design

g. onlay clasp

c

98
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Which of the following statements regarding wrought wire clasps is false?

a. for "0.02 undercuts

b. indicated for class I and II

c. located in the apical third

d. indicated for periodontally compromised patients

e. does not involve as many steps as CC clasps

e (involves additional steps)

99
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Which of the following are disadvantages of wrought wire clasps?

a. decrease in flexibility

b. involves additional steps

c. more prone to breakage

d. all the above are disadvantages

e. B and C

f. A and C

e (increase in flexibility)

100
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select the incorrect statement about infrabulge cast clasps.

a. used with "0.01 undercuts

b. crosses free gingiva margin parallel to the occlusal surface of the teeth

c. clasp terminus is as far apical as possible

d. need at least 3 mm for vestibule and frenum

b (perpendicular)