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Last updated 12:21 AM on 9/22/26
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67 Terms

1
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What intimal cell synthesizes and stores von Willebrand factor (VWF)?

Endothelial cell

2
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What subendothelial structural protein triggers coagulation through activation of factor VII?

Tissue factor

3
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What coagulation plasma protein should be assayed when platelets fail to aggregate properly?

Fibrinogen

4
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What is the primary role of vitamin K for the prothrombin group factors?

Carboxylates the factors to allow calcium binding

5
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What is the source of prothrombin fragment F1.2?

Thrombin proteolysis of fibrinogen

6
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What serine protease forms a complex with factor VIIIa, and what is the substrate of this complex?

Factor IXa, factor X

7
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What protein secreted by endothelial cells activates fibrinolysis?

TPA

8
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What two regulatory proteins form a complex that digests activated factors V and VIII?

APC and protein S

9
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What are the primary roles of VWF?

Mediate platelet adhesion and serve as a carrier molecule for factor VIII

10
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Most coagulation factors are synthesized in:

The liver

11
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The events involved in secondary hemostasis:

Lead to the formation of a stable fibrin clot

12
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Which of the following coagulation factors is activated by thrombin and mediates the stabilization of the fibrin clot?

Factor XIII

13
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Which of the following endogenous plasma inhibitors is (are) important for the control of excessive thrombin generation?

AT, TFPI

14
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The clinical presentation of platelet-related bleeding may include all of the following except:

Bleeding into the joints (hemarthroses)

15
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A defect in GP IIb/IIIa causes:

Glanzmann thrombasthenia

16
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Patients with Bernard-Soulier syndrome have which of the following laboratory test findings?

Abnormal platelet response to ristocetin

17
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Which of the following is the most common of the hereditary platelet function defects?

Storage pool defects

18
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A reduction in thrombin generation in patients with Scott syndrome results from:

Altered expression of phospholipids on the platelet membrane

19
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The impaired platelet function in myeloproliferative neoplasms results from:

Decreased numbers of α granules and dense granules

20
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The platelet defect associated with increased paraproteins is:

Impaired membrane activation, owing to protein coating

21
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In uremia, platelet function is impaired by higher than normal levels of:

NO

22
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Thrombocytopenia associated with the use of cardiopulmonary bypass is not caused by:

Anti-GP IIb/IIIa antibodies

23
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Aspirin ingestion blocks the synthesis of:

Thromboxane A2

24
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A mechanism of antiplatelet drugs targeting GP IIb/IIIa function is:

Direct binding to GP IIb/IIIa

25
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Which is a congenital qualitative platelet disorder?

Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

26
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The autosomal dominant disorder associated with decreased platelet production is:

May-Hegglin anomaly

27
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Which of the following is not a hallmark of ITP?

Large overactive platelets

28
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The specific antigen most commonly responsible for the development of NAIT is:

HPA-1a

29
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A 2-year-old child with an unexpected platelet count of 15,000/μL and a recent history of a viral infection most likely has:

Acute ITP

30
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Which drug causes a reduction in platelet count by inhibiting megakaryocyte maturation?

Anagrelide

31
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A defect in primary hemostasis (platelet response to an injury) often results in:

Mucosal bleeding

32
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When a drug acts as a hapten to induce thrombocytopenia, an antibody forms against which of the following?

The combination of the drug and the platelet membrane protein to which it is bound

33
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TAR refers to:

Abnormal bone formation, including hypoplasia of the forearms

34
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Neonatal autoimmune thrombocytopenia occurs when:

The mother has an autoimmune antibody to her own platelets, which crosses the placenta and reacts with the infant’s platelets

35
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HUS in children is associated with:

Diarrhea caused by Shigella species

36
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Treatment with an anticomplement agent such as eculizumab is first-line therapy for:

Atypical HUS

37
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Which of the following statements regarding thrombocytosis is not true?

Thrombocytosis is self-correcting

38
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Which of the following includes the advances made in technology in the coagulation lab?

All of the above

39
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Which of the following is considered to be an advantage of the mechanical end-point detection methodology?

It is not affected by lipemia in the test specimen

40
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What method of detection is used in both the TEG and ROTEM?

Viscoelastic

41
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Which of the following is a feature of semiautomated coagulation testing analyzers?

Reagents and specimens usually are added manually by the operator

42
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When a specimen has been flagged as being icteric by an automated coagulation analyzer, which method would be most susceptible to erroneous results because of the interfering substance?

Photo-optical clot detection

43
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Which of the following newer techniques can be used for the measurement of platelet function testing in patients with thrombocytopenia and in pediatrics?

Flow cytometry

44
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All of the following are performance characteristics to consider in the selection of a coagulation analyzer except:

Location of the manufacturer’s home office

45
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Platelet function is measured by the PFA-100 using which of the following methods?

Detecting the time it takes for a clot to form as blood flows through a small aperture in a tube coated with platelet activators

46
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A clinical setting where point-of-care testing is used in high volume is:

To monitor patients receiving oral anticoagulant therapy

47
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Molecular testing can be used to diagnose patients with:

Both Factor V Leiden and Prothrombin 20210A

48
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What happens if a coagulation specimen collection tube is underfilled?

Clot-based test results are falsely prolonged

49
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If you collect blood into a series of tubes, when in the sequence should the hemostasis (blue stopper) tube be filled?

First, or after a nonadditive tube

50
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What is the effect of hemolysis on a hemostasis specimen?

In vitro platelet and coagulation activation

51
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Except for platelet aggregometry, most coagulation testing must be performed on PPP, which is plasma with a platelet count less than:

10,000/μL

52
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You wish to obtain a 5-mL specimen of whole-blood/anticoagulant mixture. The patient’s hematocrit is 65%. What volume of anticoagulant should you use?

0.32 mL

53
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You perform whole-blood lumiaggregometry on a specimen from a patient who complains of easy bruising. Aggregation and secretion are diminished when the agonists thrombin, ADP, arachidonic acid, and collagen are used. What is the most likely platelet abnormality?

Glanzmann thrombasthenia

54
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What is the reference assay for HIT?

Serotonin release assay

55
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What agonist is used in platelet aggregometry to detect VWD?

Ristocetin

56
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Deficiency of which congenital single factor is likely when the PT result is prolonged and the PTT result is normal?

Factor VII

57
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A prolonged PT, a low factor VII level, but a normal factor V level are characteristic of an acquired coagulopathy associated with which of the following?

Vitamin K deficiency

58
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The patient has deep vein thrombosis. The PTT is prolonged and is not corrected in an immediate mix of patient PPP with an equal part of PNP. What is the presumed condition?

Lupus anticoagulant

59
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What condition causes the most pronounced elevation in the result of the quantitative D-dimer assay?

DIC

60
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What is the name given to the type of assay that uses a synthetic polypeptide substrate that releases a chromophore on digestion by its serine protease?

Chromogenic substrate assay

61
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What component of the fibrinolytic process binds and neutralizes free plasmin?

α2-antiplasmin

62
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What type of high-throughput genomic sequencing is likely to become a standard clinical assay?

Whole-genome sequencing

63
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Which of the following receptors is/are involved in PLT adhesion to subendothelium?

GPIb/IX/V & GPVI

64
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Which of the following receptors is/are involved in PLT aggregation?

GPIIb/IIIa

65
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Deletion or deficiency of GPIb/IX/V may disrupt the effect of which agonist?

ristocetin

66
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Which of the following is true regarding BT (bleeding time test)?

It is a screening test to evaluate 1˚ hemostasis but is prone to variations

67
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A young male patient consumed one tablet of aspirin and two capsules of indomethacin this morning (8:00) to alleviate some pains he has been having for a while. His BT test is scheduled for 10:00. How would you deal with this situation?

The test must be postponed for one week, so the drugs are completely cleared from circulation