Wilkins Chapter 25-30, 34,35,38,42

1. A) Removal of stains is for esthetic, not for health, reasons. B) Stains on the teeth are etiologic factors for disease or destructive processes.

a) Statement A is true and statement B is false.

b) Statement A is false and statement B is true.

c) Both statements are true.

d) Both statements are false.

A

2. How much of the outer enamel may be removed when polishing for 30 seconds with a pumice paste?

a) A few millimeters

b) None

c) Too little to be measured

d) Pumice paste should not be used for polishing teeth.

e) A few micrometers

E

3. All of the following medical conditions are considered contraindications for polishing except one. Which one is the exception?

a) Asthma

b) Emphysema

c) Cystic fibrosis

d) Tuberculosis

e) Anemia

E

4. The maximum Mohs hardness value is indicative of a material's resistance to scratching. Diamonds have Mohs value of 10. Which of the following substances would have the highest Mohs value after diamonds?

a) The most abrasive cleaning agent available (aluminum silicates)

b) The most abrasive polishing agent available (silicon carbine)

c) Cementum

d) Dentin

e) Enamel

B

5. Powdered pumice consists chiefly of complex silicates of aluminum, potassium, and sodium. Powdered pumice has what type of origin?

a) Lunar

b) Ocean

c) Volcanic

d) Beach

e) Subterranean

C

6. Additives are included in prophylaxis polishing pastes to provide a specific function. All of the following are enhancements provided by additives included in prophylaxis polishing pastes of the except one. Which one is the exception?

a) Enhance the mineral surface of enamel

b) Reduce gingival inflammation

c) Diminish dentin hypersensitivity

d) Whiten teeth

B

7. You have a patient with open embrasures on teeth 22 to 27. He has a problem with heavy stain accumulation just below the CEJ, He wants you to remove all of this stain because the previous hygienist always did. What is the most acceptable method for removal of this stain?

a) A rubber cup

b) Dental tape with a polishing agent

c) A finishing strip

d) A bristle brush

e) A periodontal file

B

8. Air-powder polishing systems use air, water, and which of the following ingredients in a controlled spray that propels the particles to the tooth surface?

a) Sodium silicate

b) Sodium bicarbonate

c) Aluminum oxide

d) Iron oxide

e) Pumice flour

B

9. When air polishing is used, the orifice of the handpiece nozzle is kept in a constant circular motion, with the nozzle tip at what distance from the enamel surface?

a) Touching the enamel surface

b) I to 2 mm away from the enamel surface

c) 4 to 5 mm away from the enamel surface

d) 6 to 8 mm away from the enamel surface

e) It should not be used on enamel surfaces.

C

10. There are many advantages to air-powder polishing. All of the following are advantages except one. Which one is the exception?

a) Stain and biofilm removal from orthodontically banded teeth

b) Removal of heavy chlorhexidine staining

c) Can be used prior to sealant placement

d) Less risk to cementum and dentin

D

11. Which of the following surfaces should not be polished with sodium bicarbonate air polishing powder?

a) Porcelain

b) Microfilled composite

c) Amalgam

d) Gold

e) Enamel

B

12. Contraindications for air polishing may include all of the following except one. Which one is the exception?

a) Sodium-restricted diet

b) Respiratory disease

c) End-stage renal disease

d) Communicable infection that can contaminate the aerosols produced

e) Alcoholism

E

14. All of the following are advantages of the Porte Polisher, except:

a) no noise.

b) useful for difficult-to-reach areas.

c) heat generation.

d) portability.

C

15. Which of the following is the most resilient rubber cup?

a) Synthetic

b) Natural

c) Threaded

d) Plastic

B

13. Flushing water through the tubing for __at the beginning of each work period lessens contaminated aerosols.

a) 15 seconds

b) 30 seconds

c) 1 minute

d) 2 minutes

e) 5 minutes

D

16. The rubber polishing point is used for removal of stain from:

a) proximal surfaces.

b) deep pit and fissures.

c) lingual surfaces

d) All of these are correct.

A

17. A) Most finishing strips are now made of plastic. B) Use of a finishing strip is limited to cemental surfaces.

a) Statement A is true and statement B is false.

b) Statement A is false and statement B is true.

c) Both statements are true.

d) Both statements are false,

A

18. A) The pulp chamber in the teeth of children are small and are less susceptible to heat. B) A minimum of wet abrasive agent can create sufficient heat to cause pain and discomfort for the patient.

a) Statement A is true and statement B is false..

b) Statement A is false and statement B is true.

c) Both statements are true.

d) Both statements are false.

B

19. Mr. Smith is a 45-year-old male patient. He has a medical history that is unremarkable. He has several restorations and crowns with generalized moderate periodontal disease. He smokes, drinks coffee, and feels like his teeth are yellow. He has generalized recession of 2 to 3 mm apical to the CEJ and generalized rolled margins with 4- to 5-mm pockets. After your first root planing appointment, Mr. Smith asks to have his teeth polished to brighten them up. What should you do?

a) Polish by quadrant after each root planing session.

b) Avoid polishing because of the patient's attitude.

c) Avoid polishing after root planing so particles do not imbed in the tissue.

d) Avoid polishing due to the possibility of damaging the pulp due to heat.

e) Be sure to polish with coarse paste to remove the smoking stain.

C

20. Mr. Smith is a 45-year-old male patient. He has a medical history that is unremarkable. He has several restorations and crowns with generalized moderate periodontal disease. He smokes, drinks coffee, and feels like his teeth are yellow. He has generalized recession of 2 to 3 mm apical to the CEJ and generalized rolled margins with 4- to 5-mm pockets. What is the best method to use to remove the stain on the exposed root surfaces?

a) Coarse paste with light pressure

b) Medium-grit paste with heavy pressure c) Root plane the stain during instrumentation

d) Bleaching trays to be used the patient at night

e) Leave the stain on the root surfaces

C

21. Mr. Şmith is a 45-year-old male patient. He has a medical history that is unremarkable. He has several restorations and crowns with generalized moderate periodontal disease. He smokes, drinks coffee, and feels like his teeth are yellow. He has generalized recession of 2 to 3 mm apical to the CEJ and generalized rolled margins with 4- to 5-mm pockets. What is the best way to determine where Mr. Smith has restorations that should not be polished?

a) You should polish all teeth and restorations so they feel smooth.

b) You should ask the patient where he has fillings.

c) You should check the radiographs and charting before polishing.

d) You should avoid polishing anyone who has restorations.

C

22. True or False? The use of a cleaning agent in place of an abrasive prophylaxis polishing agent will not remove the outermost layer of enamel.

True

1. Restoring a sharp cutting edge is one of the two main objectives to instrument sharpening. What is the other objective?

a) Maintain the internal angle of the cutting blade at about 90 degrees.

b) Remove metal equally from the face and lateral surface.

c) Preserve the original shape of the instrument.

d) Maintain the angle between the instrument face and stone at 90 degrees.

C

2. Which of the following best indicates that an instrument is dull?

a) The instrument grabs the plastic testing stick.

b) Light does not reflect from the cutting edge.

c) Each portion of the cutting edge engages the plastic testing stick uniformly as the blade advances.

d) The cutting edge presents a rounded, shiny surface.

D

3. When sharpening the lateral sides of a sickle using a stationary instrument technique, which of the following is true?

a) The face of the instrument is positioned so that it is parallel to the floor.

b) A face-to-stone angle of about 70 degrees is established.

c) The stone is moved in an up-and-down motion ending in an up motion.

d) Place more pressure on the up stroke.

A

4. Which one of the following accurate statement concerning testing instrument sharpness?

a) Apply the testing stick along the entire cutting edge.

b) Test for sharpness after one or two strokes.

c) Use a metal quarter-inch rod, 3 inches long.

d) When the instrument is sharp, it engages the test stick.

D

5. When moving the flat sharpening stone, which of the following does not apply?

a) Grasp the instrument with your dominant hand.

b) Use a palm grasp.

c) Place your hand against an immovable workbench.

d) Use bright light.

A

6. When sharpening curets, the visible angle at which the stone will be placed should be:

a) 55 degrees.

b) 70 degrees.

c) 100 degrees.

d) 110 degrees.

D

7. A) Move the stone up and down with short rhythmical strokes about one-half inch high. B) Place more pressure on the up stroke.

a) Statement A is true and statement B is false.

b) Statement A is false and statement B is true.

c) Both statements are true.

d) Both statements are false

A

8. When sharpening the toe of a curet with a moving stone, all of the following are true, except:

a) make the toe parallel with the floor.

b) apply the stone to make a 90 degree angle with the toe.

c) turn the instrument continuously until center of the round end of the blade is reached.

d) All of these are true statements.

C

9. Files are sharpened with a flat sharpening instrument called a:

a) diamond-coated file.

b) tanged file.

c) titanium file.

d) None of these are correct.

B

10. Which of the following is not a consequence of using a dull instrument?

a) Decreased possibility of nicking tooth surface

b) Inadequate removal of calculus

c) Increased likelihood of slipping

d) Wasted energy

A

1. A) Because topically applied fluorides protect smooth tooth surfaces more than occlusal surfaces, a method to reduce the incidence of occlusal dental caries is needed. B) The incidence of new pit-and-fissure caries can be lowered significantly by the application of adhesive sealants.

a) Statement A is true and statement B is false.

b) Statement A is false and statement B is true.

c) Both statements are true.

d) Both statements are false.

C

2. Which of the following is a purpose of a sealant?

a) To provide a physical barrier to seal off pits and fissures

b) To seal oral bacteria into the pit or fissure

c) To prevent decay on smooth tooth surfaces

d) To restore decayed tooth

A

3. Which of the following is not a purpose of the acid etch step in preparing a tooth for sealant application?

a) To smooth the surface of the tooth enamel

b) To produce irregularities or micropores in the enamel

c) To allow the liquid resin to penetrate into the micropores of the enamel

d) To create bond or mechanical locking of the sealant with the enamel

A

4. Which of the following is not a criterion of an ideal sealant?

a) Achieve prolonged bonding to the enamel

b) Be biocompatible with oral tissues

c) Have a simple application process

d) Be a thick, high-viscosity material

D

5. What are the three types of sealant currently available?

a) Filled, unfilled, and fluoride releasing

b) Low viscosity, high viscosity, and fluoride releasing

c) Zinc polymer, fluoride polymer, and bisphenol polymer

d) Glass ionomer, quartz ionomer, and fluoride ionomer

A

6. What are the two methods of polymerization?

a) Self-cured and autopolymerized

b) UV polymerized and solar polymerized

c) Visible-light polymerized and photo polymerized

d) Photo polymerized and autopolymerized

D

7. Which of the following is an advantage of visible-light-cured sealants?

a) The need for a supplemental light source

b) Fixed working time

c) Increased working time

d) Easier to see when cured

C

8. Which of the following is not an indication for sealant placement?

a) Xerostomia

b) Orthodontics

c) Incipient caries

d) Proximal dental caries

D

9. Which of the following is not considered a cleaning choice prior to sealant placement?

a) High-speed handpiece with prophy paste

b) Low-speed handpiece with pumice

c) Air powder polisher

d) Bristle brush

A

10. What is the purpose of isolating the teeth being sealed?

a) To prevent the teeth from being contaminated with saliva

b) To keep the teeth damp for optimum bonding action

c) To prevent the teeth from contacting the soft oral tissues

d) To keep the acid etch away from the teeth and only on soft tissue

A

11. What is another name for the triangular saliva absorber placed over the parotid duct?

a) Garmer holder

b) Tri-parotid pad

c) Triangle pad

d) Bibulous pad

D

12. The acid etchant used for preparing a tooth for pit and fissure sealants is usually which ingredient?

a) Hydrochloric acid

b) Phosphoric acid

c) Hydrogen peroxide

d) Fluorescing acid

e) Amylases

B

13. Which of the following is true for completion of the etching process?

a) Do not rinse.

b) Rinse thoroughly and then dry.

c) Do not dry.

d) Surface should appear shiny white.

e) It is no longer necessary to keep isolated after etching.

B

14. What is the method of choice for teeth isolation during sealant placement?

a) Garmer clamp holders

b) Cotton rolls held by the fingers

c) Rubber dam

d) Specially designed sealant trays

C

15. Which of the following is not true for sealant placement?

a) Always follow the manufacturer's instructions.

b) Mix sealant well to ensure a homogenous consistency

c) Keep sealant to a minimum in the pits and fissures.

d) Sealant should not make a flat pool.

B

16. Which type of sealant will need occlusal adjustment upon final curing?

a) Unfilled

b) Filled

c) Opaque

d) Self-cure

B

17. What item is used to check sealants for occlusal high spots after final curing?

a) Rubber dam

b) Cotton roll

c) Articulating paper

d) Curing light

C

18. Which of the following is the definition of incipient caries?

a) Caries formed from unknown origins

b) Caries formed as a result of a stay in a healthcare facility

c) Beginning caries limited to the enamel

d) Caries recurring around an existing restoration

C

19. A) Some incipient carious lesions may be arrested with the application of pit and fissure sealants. B) An adult patient with xerostomia is contraindicated for sealant placement.

a) Statement A is true and statement B is false.

b) Statement A is false and statement B is true.

c) Both statements are true.

d) Both statements are false.

A

20. Which of the following is the major reason for sealant failure?

a) Glycerin or fluoride was used in prophy paste to prepare the tooth

b) Salivary contamination

c) Phosphoric acid in a concentration of 30% to 50%

d) Etching time only 1 to 2 minutes

B

21. Which of the following is contraindicated for sealant placement?

a) Tooth not completely erupted

b) Xerostomia

c) Incipient pit

d) Low socioeconomic status

A

22. All of the following are included in pit-and-fissure anatomy, except:

a) a wide V-shape.

b) a narrow V-shape.

c) long constricted fissures.

d) long wide pits.

D

23. A) Cleaning the tooth with pumice prior to dental sealant placement is recommended. B) The narrow, long fissures are difficult to clean completely.

a) Statement A is true and statement B is false.

b) Statement A is false and statement B is true.

c) Both statements are true,

d) Both statements are false,

B

24. Which of the following is not true about microscopic examination of pits and fissures after sealant application.

a) Material often does not penetrate to the bottom because residual debris.

b) Cleaning agents assist sealant penetration to the bottom.

c) Trapped air prevent passage of the material to the bottom.

d) All of these are true statements.

B

26. The etching process causes the surface to appear:

a) rough.

b) çaulky.

c) dull.

d) porous.

B

27. Over manipulation of sealant material produces:

a) saliva.

b) acid.

c) air bubbles.

d) patient tension.

C

25. When using a light-cured sealant material it is important to leave liquid sealant material in place for _____ seconds to allow for optimum penetration.

a) 5

b) 10

c) 15

d) 20

B

1. The maximum caries-inhibiting effect of fluoride is seen when there has been systemic exposure prior to tooth eruption and which of the following?

a) Home use when caries are suspect

b) Professional application of APF fluoride

c) Professional application of neutral sodium fluoride

d) Continual use of fluoride supplements after eruption

e) Frequent topical fluoride exposure throughout life

E

2. Which of the following is not a post-eruptive benefit of fluoride exposure?

a) It inhibits demineralization.

b) It causes development of shallower occlusal grooves.

c) It enhances remineralization.

d) It interferes with the growth of bacteria.

e) It interferes with the metabolism of bacteria.

B

3. Which of the following enamel surfaces will absorb the most fluoride when exposed in the oral environment?

a) Sound enamel on the facial surface of #8

b) The palatal root of the maxillary first molar

c) Demineralized enamel on the facial surface of #30

d) Exposed enamel in the furcation area of #19

e) Enamel covered by a dental sealant

C

4. You have a cousin living in Tempe, Arizona. She told you that her community has recently begun adding fluoride to the community drinking water. What would be the optimum concentration in the water supply for your cousin?

a) 0.7 ppm

b) 1.2 ppm

c) 1.5 ppm

d) 2.0 ppm

e) 2.5 ppm

A

5. Which of the following chemicals would most likely be used in community water fluoridation?

a) Hydrofluorosilicie acid

b) Acidulated phosphate fluoride

c) Stannous fluoride

d) Sodium monofluorophosphate

A

6. Which of the following systemic fluoride delivery methods would be considered most economical?

a) Dietary fluoride supplements

b) Naturally occurring in foods

c) Community water fluoridation

d) Professional fluoride treatment

e) Daily home rinse

C

7. You have a pregnant patient in the dental chair. She said that her sister took fluoride supplements while she was pregnant to help her child have fewer cavities when his permanent teeth come in. What should you tell this patient?

a) "That sounds like a great idea; keep it up!"

b) "The permanent teeth do not form until after birth, so this will not help with the child's permanent teeth."

c) "Good, but be sure to continue with the supplements after delivery while nursing for extra help."

d) "The fluoride can harm the fetus and should not be taken while pregnant."

B

8. What is the maximum amount of NaF that can be dispensed per household at one time?

a) There is no limit to the amount dispensed per household.

b) No more than 132 mg NaF (60 mg of fluoride)

c) No more than 264 mg NaF (120 mg of fluoride)

d) No more than 396 mg NaF (180 mg of fluoride)

C

9. What is the correct dietary fluoride supplement for a 4-year-old child who lives in an area that has a 0.5 ppm concentration of fluoride in the water?

a) No supplement is recommended.

b) 0.25 mg

c) 0.5 mg

d) 1.0 mg

e) 2.0 mg

B

10. Which of the following professional topical fluorides has the potential to dissolve the filler particles of composite resin restorations?

a) Monofluorophosphate

b) Sodium fluoride gel

c) Stannous fluoride

d) Acidulated phosphate fluoride

e) Sodium fluoride foam

D

11. Which of the following professional fluoride treatments received approval for use in the United States in 1994 as a cavity liner and for the treatment of hypersensitive teeth and has become a standard of care in practice as a caries-preventive agent?

a) 1.23% acidulated phosphate fluoride gel

b) 2.0% sodium fluoride foam

c) 2.0% sodium fluoride gel

d) 1.23% acidulated phosphate foam

e) 5.0% neutral sodium varnish

E

12. All of the following patients would indicate the need for professional topical fluoride treatment except one. Which one is the exception?

a) A patient wearing orthodontic appliances

b) A patient who exhibits xerostomia

c) A patient who does not have community water fluoridation

d) A patient with postsurgical exposed root

e) None of these are correct.

E

13. All of the following indicate the need of a custom tray home fluoride application except one. Which one is the exception?

a) Xerostomia

b) Radiation therapy

c) Rampant caries

d) Orthodontic appliances

e) Root surface hypersensitivity

D

14. Which of the following has the greatest amount of fluoride?

a) Eggs

b) Meat

c) Vegetables

d) Tea

D

15. Fluoridated salt is recommended by the _____ as an alternative to fluoridated water.

a) U.S. Department of Health

b) CDC

c) World Health Organization

d) Institute of Health

C

16. Which of the following is true of the halo/diffusion effect?

a) It lowers the amount of fluoride in fluoridated water to an optimum level for the prevention of dental caries and dental fluorosis.

b) It occurs when foods and beverages processed in a fluoridated community are consumed in a nonfluoridated community.

c) It results in the reduction in the absolute measurable benefits of the effectiveness of an intervention,

d) It exerts an inhibitory action on the progress of dental caries.

B

17. _____ is the only professional topical fluoride to be used for children under the age of 6 years.

a) Sodium fluoride gel

b) Stannous fluoride

c) Acidulated phosphate fluoride

d) Varnish

D

18. All types of infant formula contain _____ of fluoride, which is a low amount.

a) 0.11-0.57 ppm

b) 0.24-0.50 ppm

c) 0.30-0.60 ppm

d) 0.45-0.75 ppm

A

19. One of your patients is quite concerned about her toddler's dental health. She does not want him to have any cavities and plans to take every precaution possible. They live in an area that is not fluoridated. She felt proud that she filled the fluoride supplement prescription your dentist gave her 6 months ago and has the child take it every day after dinner. She was sure to point out that her child eats a well-balanced diet and they drink milk every meal to help their bones and teeth form. If this parent wants to take every precaution possible for her child, what would be most beneficial to change with regard to her dental awareness?

a) Be sure to use bottled water so the child does not get too much fluoride.

b) Be sure that the child swishes with fluoride rinse at night before bed.

c) Do not take the supplements with dairy products.

d) Do not take fluoride supplements because they are harmful to toddlers.

e) Let the child brush his own teeth so he learns responsibility for his own care.

C

20. One of your patients is quite concerned about her toddler's dental health. She does not want him to have any cavities and plans to take every precaution possible. They live in an area that is not fluoridated. She felt proud that she filled the fluoride supplement prescription your dentist gave her 6 months ago and has the child take it every day after dinner. She was sure to point out that her child eats a well-balanced diet and they drink milk at every meal to help their bones and teeth form. Where, would you tell this mother, is fluoride absorbed by the body?

a) Liver

b) Lungs

c) Large intestine

d) Stomach

e) Skin

D

21. One of your patients is quite concerned about her toddler's dental health. She does not want him to have any cavities and plans to take every precaution possible. They live in an area that is not fluoridated. She felt proud that she filled the fluoride supplement prescription your dentist gave her 6 months ago and has the child take it every day after dinner. She was sure to point out that her child eats a well-balanced diet and they drink milk at every meal to help their bones and teeth form. Where, would you tell this mother, is fluoride primarily stored by the body?

a) Small intestine

b) Kidneys

c) Bloodstream

d) Liver

e) Bones and teeth

E

22. One of your patients is quite concerned about her toddler's dental health. She does not want him to have any cavities and plans to take every precaution possible. They live in an area that is not fluoridated. She felt proud that she filled the fluoride supplement prescription your dentist gave her 6 months ago and has the child take it every day after dinner. She was sure to point out that her child eats a well-balanced diet and they drink milk at every meal to help their bones and teeth form. If this mother were still breastfeeding her toddler, would this have an influence on the need for or of fluoride supplements?

a) It does not matter because fluoride varnish is available and is all that is necessary.

b) Yes, fluoride is readily excreted in the breast milk, so the toddler does not need supplements.

c) No, fluoride is not readily excreted in the breast milk, so it does not matter

d) They live in an area with no community fluoridation, so it should not matter

e) Fluoride supplements are needed but should be taken 30 minutes prior to or after ingesting breast milk, as its absorption can be reduced by the milk.

E

23. True or False? Water softeners remove fluoride from water.

False

(1) A denture adhesive can be used with an immediate denture. (2) An overdenture is designed to remain in place permanently.

A) Both statements are true.

B) Both statements are false.

C) The first statement is true; the second statement is false.

D) The first statement is false; the second statement is true.

C) The first statement is true; the second statement is false.

An artificial tooth on a fixed partial denture that replaces a missing natural tooth and restores function to the dentition is a(n) ________.

A) abutment

B) crown

C) obturator

D) pontic

D) pontic

The _______________ and _______________ are considered removable prostheses.

A) periodontal splint; obturator

B) complete denture; space maintainer

C) Hawley appliance; overdenture

D) space maintainer; periodontal splint

C) Hawley appliance; overdenture

What is an immediate denture?

A) complete removable dental prosthesis that replaces the entire dentition and associated structures

B) A removable denture fabricated for placement after the removal of one or more natural teeth

C) A removable denture that covers and is partially supported by one or more remaining natural teeth, roots or dental implants

D) A process of directing the prosthesis to a desired dental location

E) An artificial replacement of one or more teeth associated with dental or alveolar structures

B) A removable denture fabricated for placement after the removal of one or more natural teeth

What is significant about the state of anodontia?

A) It is a body of knowledge that pertains to the restoration of the edentulous.

B) It is an artificial substitute for missing natural teeth.

C) It is a rare condition characterized by the congenital absence of all teeth, primary and secondary.

D) It is the modification of the form and teeth to produce a more life like appearance.

E) It is the material used to adhere a denture to the oral mucosa.

C) It is a rare condition characterized by the congenital absence of all teeth, primary and secondary.

(1) A clasp brush is specially designed to remove dental biofilm and debris from the inside surfaces of clasps on a removable partial. (2) A removable partial must be held carefully to avoid accidents.

A) Both statements are false.

B) Both statements are true.

C) The first statement is false; the second statement is true.

D) The first statement is true; the second statement is false.

B) Both statements are true.

The _______________ and _______________ are considered fixed prostheses.

A) periodontal splint; obturator

B) complete denture; space maintainer

C) Hawley appliance; overdenture

D) space maintainer; periodontal splint

D) space maintainer; periodontal splint

(1) A fixed partial denture can be cemented to implant abutments. (2) A bridge is an example of a fixed partial denture that can be fabricated from metals, ceramics, or a combination of both.

A) Both statements are true.

B) The first statement is true; the second statement is false.

C) Both statements are false.

D) The first statement is false; the second statement is true.

A) Both statements are true.

A removable denture that covers and is partially supported by the remaining teeth and the soft tissue of the residual alveolar ridge is called a(n) __________.

A) overdenture

B) overclosure

C) denture insertion

D) fixed partial denture

E) precision attachment

A) overdenture

A lesion on the palate of a denture wearer appears within the confines of the bony ridges and has closely arranged pebble-shaped projections. What is the lesion described?

A) Inflammatory hyperplasia

B) Ulcerative lesion

C) Denture stomatitis

D) Sore spot

E) Epulis fissuratum

A) Inflammatory hyperplasia

Which of the following dental prostheses are considered removable?

A) Periodontal splint and obturator

B) Complete denture, overdenture, and implant-supported complete denture

C) Hawley appliance, overdenture, and complete denture

D) Hawley appliance, space maintainer, and periodontal splint

C) Hawley appliance, overdenture, and complete denture

What would be the recommended treatment of angular cheilitis?

A) Denture adhesive

B) Saliva substitute

C) Antibacterial rinse

D) Antifungal cream

D) Antifungal cream

Your patient is having issues with food impaction underneath the pontics and around the abutment teeth of the fixed bridges on #2-5 and #20-18. Which of the following is the BEST aid to loosen the debris under the pontic and around the abutment teeth?

A) Toothbrush using the Charters method

B) Floss threader

C) Interdental aid

D) Oral irrigator

D) Oral irrigator

Which mucous membrane is made of two layers - the lamina propria and surface-stratified squamous epithelium?

A) Specialized mucosa

B) Submucosa

C) Masticatory mucosa

D) Lining mucosa

E) Connective mucosa

C) Masticatory mucosa

How often should cleansing solutions be changed for the denture?

A) After every meal

B) Twice daily

C) Daily

D) Biweekly

E) Weekly

C) Daily

(1) A removable partial denture supplies teeth and/or associated structures in a partially edentulous jaw. (2) The removable partial denture rests on the oral mucosa and carries the artificial teeth.

A) Both statements are false.

B) Both statements are true.

C) The first statement is false and the second statement is true.

D) The first statement is true and the second statement is false.

B) Both statements are true.

Which method of marking a new denture involves incorporating a small device into the denture?

A) Dental bar

B) Engraving tool

C) Indelible pen

D) Microchip

E) Laser etching

D) Microchip

When a patient with a denture that has been removed and that is labeled with personal identification comes in for a continuing care appointment, the dental hygienist should do all of the following except one. Which is the exception?

A) Inspect the denture

B) Clean the denture

C) Mark the denture

D) Store denture in clean water

C) Mark the denture