Patho 1- Exam 1

____ can be defined as the study of abnormalities in physiologic functioning of living beings, therefore it is about revealing the bodys responses to disruptions in its internal or external environment

pathophysiology

four interrelated topics that correspond to pathophysiology + definitions

etiology (cause of disease)

pathogenesis (progression of disease)

clinical manifestations (signs, symptoms, stages)

treatment implications (treatment strategies)

true or false: most diseases are multifactorial, example?

true, type 2 diabetes has many different causes

a patient presents with hair loss due to chemotherapy, is this an example of an iatrogenic cause?

Yes, hair loss is caused by the treatment for cancer which is def of iatrogenic

reasons that classify a multifactorial disease such as coronary heart disease

genetics predisposition, diet, elevated blood pressure, high mental stress

true or false: every individual exposed in a population will contract the disease

false

True or false: pathogenesis can be defined as the evolution or development of disease, starting from initial stimulus to the final result of manifestation of the disease

true

etiology definition + its classifications?

cause of diseases, idiopathic (unknown cause) and iatrogenic (caused by treatment for different disease)

true or false: sign can be defined as a subjective clinical manifestation

false

true or false: symptom can be defined as an objective clinical manifestation

false

which of the following is an example of the clinical manifestation known as a symptom

A) vomiting

B) observing enlarged lymph nodes

C) Headache

D) bruise

C) headache

True or false: syndrome is the etiology of signs and symptoms that have not been determined

true

What is the difference between latent period vs prodromal period

latent period is the time between exposure and first appearance of sign/ symptom (you dont know you were exposed) while prodromal period is the time when first sign/symptom appear or onset of disease (nonspecific signs/symptoms)

is the acute phase when the disease has reached its full intensity?

yes

which is the phase that refers to a period during an illness when the signs/symptoms temporarily become mild, silent, or disappear?

latent period

exacerbation definition

sudden increase in severity of disease signs/symptoms

remission definition

decrease in severity of signs/symptoms, could mean disease is cured

convalescence definition

recovery stage after disease, injury, or surgical procedure

sequela definition

healed from disease but it left signs (ex. acne scars)

To determine if a certain finding is indicative of a disease or “abnormal”, it must be compared with what?

what is “normal”

what is the difference between positive and negative predictive value

positive predictive value is the probability that the disease is present, whereas a negative predicitive value is the probability that the disease is absent

true or false: specificity is the probability that a test will be negative when applied to a person without a particuluar condition

true

Strep Throat Swab with a sensitivity of 80% means that 20% of people with the condition will test negative making this a

false negative

endemic definition

limited to one region at a stable level

epidemic definition

still in one region but levels exceed stable

pandemic definition

spreads rapidly, affect multiple regions

which of the following is an example of secondary prevention?

A) Maintaining routine immunizations

B) Preforming monthly breast examinations

C) Screening for cancer

D) Rehabilitating after a stroke

B and C

What are the three ways that cells respond to environmental changes and injury? which is irreversible?

They withstand assault and return to normal, they adapt by changing structure/ function, and they have cell death by necrosis or apoptosis (irreversible)

what does reversible cell injury cause?

swelling and intracellular accumulation

what is another word for oncosis and what is its function?

hydropic swelling, function is cellular swelling because of accumulation of water

true or false: intracellular accumulation is characterizied by excessive amounts of normal intracellular substances

true

what are some examples of normal intracellular substances? (4)

lipids, carbs, proteins, inorganic pigments

Atrophy

decreased cell size

hypertrophy

increased cell size

Hyperplasia

increased cell number

metaplasia

conversion of one cell type to another

dysplasia

disorderdly growth

what is an example of physiologic and pathologic hypertrophy

example of physiologic hypertrophy is increase in skeletal muscle size in response to exercise

example of pathologic hypertrophy is heart enlargement in response to high blood pressure

what are the two categories of irreversible cell injury?

necrosis and apoptosis

what is the most common form of necrosis?

coagulative

what is gangrene defined as and what are the three types?

def: cellular death in a large area of tissue due to interruption of blood supply

three types: dry, wet, gas

does apoptosis cause an inflammatory response?

no it does not

what is ischemia and hypoxic injury

ischemia is lack of blood supply and hypoxia is lack of oxygen

what is the relationship between ischemia and hypoxia?

hypoxia is often caused by ischemia which then causes power failure in cell

true or false: restoration of oxygen can worsen cell injury rather than reversing it

true

nutritional deficiencies may result from? (4)

poor intake, altered absorption, impaired distribution by circulatory system, inefficient cellular uptake

what are the five causes of cellular injury?

ischemia + hypoxic injury, nutritional injury, infectious + immunologic injury, chemical injury, physical + mechanical injury

radiation is an example of physical and mechanical injury to a cell, what are the primary effects it may have on a cell?

genetic damage and acute cell destruction

are the aging processes and disease processes different?

yes

what is the cellular basis of aging?

a cumulative result from two factors that cause cellular and molecular damage: progressive decline in proliferation and reparative capacity of cells, and exposure to environmental factors

what is the free radical theory?

aging results from cumulative and progressive damage to cell structures (ex. UV radiation)

What is the programmed senescence theory?

aging is due to intrinsic genetic program, after a certain number of cell divisions the cell becomes dormant and dies

The human DNA is organized into how many chromosomes, composed of how many pairs?

46 chromosomes, 23 pairs

how many pairs of chromosomes are autosomal?

22 pairs

which pair of chromosomes is defined as the sex chromosomes?

the 23 pair, the X and Y

what are the four groups of genetic disorders?

chromosomal abnormalities, mendelian single-gene disorders, non-mendelian single-gene disorders, polygenic and multifactorial disorders

chromosomal abnormalities generally result from?

abnormal number of chromosomes, alterations to the structure of one or more chromosomes

what does aneuploidy refer to?

an abnormal number of chromosomes, either more or less than 46

what is an example of autosomal aneuploidy and why?

down syndrome is an example since it is caused by an extra copy of chromosome 21. This occurs due to nondisjunction where the chromosomes do not separate during division

Trisomy 18 and Trisomy 13 are examples of which aneuploidy, and what is another name for each?

Both are examples of autosomal aneuploidy. Trisomy 18- Edwards Syndrome and Trisomy 12- Patau Syndrome

what are two examples of a sex chromosome aneuploidy?

Klinefelter Syndrome and Turner Syndrome

what are the differences in abnormal chromosome structure between meiosis and mitosis

in meiosis there can be errors during crossing over (chromosome portions are lost, flipped, or attached to wrong chromosome). In mitosis there can be chromosomal breakage and rearrangement

true or false: the long are is labeled the q arm and the short arm is the p arm

true

what is cri du chat syndrome?

it is a deletion of part of the short arm of chromosome 5

the location of the defective gene is found where, and the mode of transmission is defined as ____?

location is autosomal or sex chromosome, the mode of transmission is dominant or recessive

marfan syndrome is an example of an autosomal dominant disorder, falling under which type of tissue disorder?

connective tissue disorder

what are some clinical manifestations for marfan syndrome?

tall, slender, cardiovascular lesions, aorta is weak

marfan syndrome is traced to which mutation and low levels of this causes ___?

mutation in fibrillin 1 gene on chromosome 15, low levels of fibrillin leads to weakened connective tissue (overtime stretching does not recoil back)

what does huntington disease affect?

neurologic function

an abnormal amount of this protein is produced in Huntington disease that causes nerve degeneration

huntingtin protein

what are some examples of autosomal recessive disorders?

Albinisim, phenylketonuria (PKU), cystic fibrosis

true or false: do males always express the disease for a sex-linked (X-linked) disorder?

true

what classifies polygenic traits, and what are some examples of these traits?

a polygenic trait is a trait that develops in response to more than one gene, examples include height, weight, intelligence

true or false: multifactorial traits do follow clear cut modes but tend to “run in families”

false, they do not follow clear cut modes

what do teratogenic agents do?

they interfere with cell proliferation, migration, and differentiation

what are some examples of teratogenic agents?

chemicals, radiation, viral infections

between whick weeks is the embryo most susceptible to teratogenesis?

during 3rd - 9th week amd especially during 4th and 5th week

neoplasia means “new growth”, which is categorized into malignant and benign growth. what is the difference between the two?

malignant growth is when the cells invade other tissues besides its origin, the cells are dysfunctional, grow rapidly, can kill if left untreated. benign growth does not invade other tissues, are encapsulated, they are functional cells, and grow slowly

the suffix “oma” typically indicates?

a benign tumor

what terms are used to indicate malignant tumors?

“-carcinoma” and “-sarcoma” + leukemia

origins for malignant tumor terms

carcinoma- epithelial origin

sarcoma- connective tissue, mesenchymal (nerve, bone, muscle)

leukemia- white blood cells

true or false: benign are differentiated cells, whereas malignant are undifferentiated/ non functional cells

true

fill in the blank: cancer is the ___ leading cause of death in the US

second

what is the pathophysiology of malignant tumors- cancer?

a malignant tumor compresses the blood vessels, the cells then start to secrete enzymes or hormones that lead to inflammation and a loss of normal cells, angiogenesis results which means the tumor fomrs its own blood vessels to grow bigger

what are cancer causing agents?

carcinogens

what are the two groups that cancer-critical genes are grouped into, and define them?

gain of function genes: proto-oncogenes become mutated and cause overactivity of gene, they are then called oncogenes

loss of function genes: tumor suppressor genes cause underactivity of genes

what do proto-oncogenes code for? (4)

growth factors, receptors, cytoplasmic signaling molecules, transcription factors

how can proto-oncogenes become activated?

oncogenes are brought into a cell by viruses, the proto-oncogenes in the cell go through a mutation, dna sequence is lost/ damages and allows cell to become overactive, errors in chromosome replication cause extra copies of proto-oncogene in the genome

what are two examples of tumor supressor genes?

BRCA 1 and BRCA 2

what are the three steps of carcinogenesis

initiation (DNA damage, mutation),

promotion (proliferation, growth promoters),

progression (development of cancerous phenotype)

metastasis can spread to distant sites via what two ways?

by blood or lymph

tumor markers help identify parent tissues of cancer origin, what are examples for prostate cancer and ovarian cancer?

prostate cancer- prostate specific antigen

ovarian cancer- CA-125

true or false: grading is the histologic characterization of tumor cells, whereas staging is location and patterns of spread within the host

true

true or false: early detection is the best prognosis for cure

true

the immune system is a complex network composed of what? (3)

cells, tissues, proteins

true or false: all components of the immune system are inhabited by different types of white blood cells that mediate inflammation and immunity

true

what is the difference between self and nonself antigens?

proteins located on the individuals cells, whereas nonself antigens are foreign and the immune system produces a response and memory cells respond to that antigen

where do monocytes originate from?

from bone marrow

true or false: inflammatory cytokines cause the release of more immature neutrophils called bands from the bone marrow which is seen often in bacterial infections

true

what classifies lymphocytes and their function?

T and B cells function in adaptive immunity, they have the capacity to proliferate into memory cells and therefore can provide long lasting immunity against specific antigen.

Natural Killer cells function in innate immunity and are present in circulation