Mometrix Online Practice Test

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60 Terms

1
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According to Maslow's theory of human behavior, self-actualization is considered the highest category of need (lower needs must be met to reach higher ones). What is considered the second-highest category?

a. Physiological

b. Esteem

c. Safety

d. Belonging

b. Esteem

Food, water, sleep, and excretion are the four fundamental needs according to Maslow's Hierarchy. These needs have to be fulfilled for a person to have a sense of peace and safety. The next level includes security of oneself and the safety of loved ones. The next level includes fulfillment of relationships with family members and friends and intimacy with loved ones. Self-esteem is the second-highest level, followed by the highest level of self-actualization.

2
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Which of the following is NOT a violation of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)?

a. Releasing patient information to a third party without a patient signature.

b. Talking about a patient's condition during shift change at the nursing desk to the patient's Correct oncoming medical assistant.

c. Throwing a medical chart in a trash can.

d. Discussing a patient's case over social media.

b. Talking about a patient's condition during shift change at the nursing desk to the patient's Correct oncoming medical assistant.

Talking about a case to providers involved in the patient's care at the nurses station is not a HIPAA violation. Shift change is a common time for this type of discussion. Taking about a case in public areas such as elevators or cafeterias, where individuals that are not involved in the care of the patient, would be a violation of patient privacy. Releasing medical information without consent, throwing away a chart in a non- designated trash bin, or talking about a case on social media are also violations.

3
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When a medical provider asks a patient a question that requires a detailed response, what type of question is he or she asking?

a. Open.

b. Investigative.

c. Direct.

d. Informative.

a. Open

There are two types of questions: open and direct. An open-ended question requires an answer with some detailed explanation or depth. A closed or a direct question requires only one-word answers such as yes or no.

4
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A person who denies the presence of a negative behavior and blames it on someone else is using what type of defense mechanism?

a. Regression.

b. Projection.

c. Denial.

d. Displacement.

b. Projection.

Projection is a type of defense mechanism where a person displays a negative behavior and blames it on someone else. For example, a woman may accuse her significant other of cheating, but she is the one who is unfaithful.

5
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Which level of Maslow's theory of human behavior entails the basic needs for food, water and sleep?

a. Self-actualization.

b. Safety.

c. Esteem.

d. Physiological.

d. Physiological.

Food, water, sleep, and excretion are the four fundamental needs according to Maslow's Hierarchy. These needs have to be fulfilled for a person to have a sense of peace and safety. These needs also allow the individual to fulfill the subsequent needs in Maslow's hierarchy.

6
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6. When speaking to someone whose native language is not English, which of the following would not be helpful in communication with the patient?

a. Having a translator present.

b. Speaking slowly.

c. Writing the instructions.

d. Using hand gestures.

c. Writing the instructions.

If a patient speaks little or no English, chances are he or she will not be able to read it either. Speaking slowly so that the translator receives all of the information being given, using hand gestures, or drawing pictures may help facilitate communication.

7
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A child who is first starting to roll over onto his or her abdomen is likely what age?

a. 4 to 6 months.

b. 8 to 10 months.

c. 12 months.

d. 18 months.

a. 4 to 6 months.

Although ages at which developmental milestones are reached vary among children, generally children start rolling over onto their abdomen at 4 to 6 months. At 8 to 12 months children start crawling, at 12 months they may start to walk, and by 18 months they can run without much difficulty.

8
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What is the most common first sign of puberty in males?

a. Enlargement of the testes.

b. Growth spurt.

c. Deepening of the voice.

d. Development of body odor.

a. Enlargement of the testes.

There are many signs at the onset of puberty, such as the growth of hair on the face, axilla, chest, and testes; deepening of the voice; development of body odor; and growth spurts. The most common initial sign is enlargement of the testes.

9
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Which of the following would NOT facilitate communication with a geriatric patient?

a. Using clear terminology.

b. Repeating important phrases.

c. Speaking slowly.

d. Keeping the voice low.

d. Keeping the voice low.

Keeping one's voice low would not help facilitate communication in an elderly patient. Most elderly patients have hearing difficulties. When speaking to the elderly, one should speak in a loud, clear, slow voice so that no information is missed.

10
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Which of the following is within the medical assistants' scope of practice?

a. Prescribing medications.

b. Taking a patient's vital signs.

c. Interpreting lab results.

d. Suturing a laceration.

b. Taking a patient's vital signs.

Medical assistants have many responsibilities, such as taking vital signs, filing medical records, corresponding with insurances companies, as well as administrative duties. They cannot prescribe medications, interpret labs or radiological scans, insert IVs or catheters, or suture.

11
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What is the most important piece of information to obtain from a patient when taking a message for a physician?

a. Birth date.

b. Name.

c. Time of the call.

d. Diagnosis.

b. Name.

The patient's name is the most important piece of information when taking a message. The time of call, diagnosis, and the birth date are helpful but not necessarily mandatory.

12
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Typically a male physician examining a female patient should bring which of the following into the examination room?

a. Camera.

b. Power of attorney.

c. Chaperone.

d. Consent.

c. Chaperone.

A chaperone should be utilized when doing an exam on a patient. A chaperone should be always present, especially if a gynecological, rectal, or urological exam is being performed.

13
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According to Maslow's theory of human behavior, which of the following levels needs to be fulfilled before progressing to social needs?

a. Self-actualization and esteem.

b. Safety and esteem.

c. Physiological and self-actualization.

d. Safety and physiological.

d. Safety and physiological.

Food, water, sleep, and excretion are the four fundamental needs according to Maslow's Hierarchy. These needs have to be fulfilled for a person to have a sense of peace and safety. The next level includes security of oneself and the safety of loved ones. The next level includes fulfillment of relationships with family members and friends and intimacy with loved ones. Self-esteem is the second-highest level, followed by the highest level of self-actualization.

14
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When is it most appropriate to wash one's hands when examining a patient?

a. Before examining the patient.

b. After examining the patient.

c. Sporadically during the day.

d. Before and after examining the patient.

d. Before and after examining the patient.

Hand washing is the number one way to help prevent the spread of diseases. Medical practitioners should wash their hands before and after examining every patient; after touching keyboards, or equipment; and handling bodily fluids.

15
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A patient is in the office for a routine well visit. A medical assistant who is pro-life notices a history of an elective abortion on a patient's chart. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate action?

a. Hand the patient a pro-life brochure.

b. Refuse to see the patient.

c. Lecture the patient on the dangers of abortion.

d. Inquire if the patient had any post-procedure complications.

d. Inquire if the patient had any post-procedure complications.

Medical practitioners are allowed to have their own beliefs and opinions but should not impose those beliefs on their patients. Patients should all be given the same respect despite their religion, race, gender, sexual orientation, beliefs regarding abortion, or political views.

16
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A medical assistant comes into the office in the morning. He notices that an urgent message left by a patient last night needs to be returned, paperwork needs to be filed, a patient is at the desk with a question, and a lab tray needs to be set up for an appointment in an hour. Which of the following tasks should be completed first?

a. Addressing the telephone message.

b. Filing paperwork.

c. Addressing the patient at the desk.

d. Setting up the lab tray.

a. Addressing the telephone message.

The urgent telephone message should be addressed first. After that task has been addressed, assistance can be provided to the patient at the desk. The lab tray should be set up for the upcoming appointment. Filing paperwork can be done last.

17
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A woman comes to the office for a routine well visit. She is devoutly religious and requests that she not be examined by a medical assistant or a physician of the opposite sex. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate response?

a. Request that she go to another office.

b. Compromise by bringing in a female chaperone.

c. Have a female medical assistant and physician see the patient.

d. Have a male medical provider examine her anyway.

c. Have a female medical assistant and physician see the patient.

The patient's wishes are reasonable and should be accommodated. If the situation was life-threatening and only a medical provider of the opposite sex was available, then the patient's request may not be a priority.

18
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According to Maslow's theory of human behavior, which of the following should be fulfilled before progressing to safety needs?
a. Achievement.

b. Shelter.

c. Friendship.

d. Personal growth.

b. Shelter.

Food, water, sleep, and excretion are the four fundamental needs according to Maslow's Hierarchy. These needs have to be fulfilled for a person to have a sense of peace and safety. The next level includes security of oneself and the safety of loved ones. The next level includes fulfillment of relationships with family members and friends and intimacy with loved ones. Self-esteem is the second-highest level, followed by the highest level of self-actualization.

19
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Which of the following mannerisms would be least likely to be considered hostile or aggressive?
a. Low voice.

b. Close proximity.

c. Expressionless face.

d. Sudden movements and gestures.

a. Low voice. Correct

Using a low, soothing voice would help communicate nonaggressive intentions. Close proximity can be misconstrued as aggression. An expressionless face can be misunderstood as aggression or apathy. Sudden movements and gestures may relay the message of being upset or angry.

20
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Which of the following would NOT aid a visually impaired patient? a. Providing a brightly lit room.

b. Using large block lettering.

c. Speaking in a loud voice.

d. Holding his or her arm when ambulating.

c. Speaking in a loud voice.

The patient is visually impaired, not deaf. Talking in a loud voice will not help convey the message. A brightly lit room may help the patient see a little better and prevent accidental falls. Using large, clear, block-print lettering will help him or her read a little better. Holding his or her arm while ambulating may also help prevent falls.

21
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A child who is starting to walk without assistance is most likely what age?

a. 6 months.

b. 12 months.

c. 18 months.

d. 24 months.

b. 12 months.

There is a wide age range in which babies may begin walking. Some may start at 9 months, whereas others may not walk until well after a year. On average children generally start walking around 1 year of age.

22
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A patient has just been diagnosed with stage IV breast cancer. Her son offers the physician money and orders the physician to save her life. What stage of grief is the son in according to Kübler-Ross?

a. Anger.

b. Acceptance.

c. Denial.

d. Bargaining.

d. Bargaining.

Bargaining with God, a medical professional, or someone with perceived authority as an attempt to save oneself or a loved one is the third stage of grief according to Kubler-Ross. Bargaining can be manifested by financial offers, desperate prayers, or promises in exchange for the desired outcome. The five stages include denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance.

23
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Which of the following is TRUE regarding the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act of 2008?

a. It prevents insurers from discriminating against people based on genetic information.

b. It ensures schools provide necessary accommodations to those with preexisting conditions.

c. It prevents employers from discriminating against people based on genetic information.

d. It ensures restaurants and businesses provide necessary accommodations to those with preexisting conditions.

a. It prevents insurers from discriminating against people based on genetic information.

The Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act (GINA) allows people to obtain medical insurance without being discriminated against by companies for preexisting conditions. For example, if someone has sickle cell disease, his or her health care costs will be far higher than those without the disease. If someone has the sickle cell trait, he or she does not have the disease but is capable of passing it to his or her offspring. In the event his or her offspring has sickle cell disease, the health care costs will be high.

24
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When a medical provider asks a patient a question that requires a one-word response, what type of question is he or she asking?

a. Open.

b. Investigative.

c. Direct.

d. Informative.

c. Direct.

There are two types of questions: open and direct. An open-ended question requires an answer with some detailed explanation or depth. A closed or a direct question requires only one-word answers such as yes or no.

25
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According to Maslow's theory of human behavior, which of the following does NOT describe someone who has achieved self-actualization?

a. Creative.

b. Spontaneous.

c. Self-centered.

d. Open to new experiences.

c. Self-centered.

According to Maslow, people who achieve self-actualization are intelligent, curious, creative, multitalented, and independent and show empathy toward others.

26
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Four patients arrive in the emergency room at the same time: a patient with a gunshot wound to the arm, a patient who is seizing, a patient with an asthma exacerbation, and a patient with a dislocated shoulder. Which patient should be addressed last?
a. Gunshot wound.

b. Seizure.

c. Asthma exacerbation.

d. Shoulder dislocation.

d. Shoulder dislocation.


Patients should always be triaged in terms of severity of their conditions and the potential for their conditions to be life-threatening. A patient who is actively seizing should be cared for first. The seizure needs to be stopped, and the airway needs to be maintained. A gunshot wound to the arm needs to be addressed next to make sure that the bleeding is controlled and the patient is neurovascularly intact. An asthma exacerbation should be addressed next to ensure airway competency. Last to be addressed is the shoulder dislocation. It may be painful but is not dangerous.

27
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Which of the following is FALSE regarding Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)?
a. Employers must inform workers of work hazards through training.

b. Employers must protect employees from discrimination if they report work hazards.

c. Employers must provide employees with free personal protective gear.

d. Employers must provide employees with job benefits and vacation time.

d. Employers must provide employees with job benefits and vacation time.


The Occupational Safety and Health Administration's (OSHA's) job is to ensure safety in the workplace. It requires the employer to provide free, functioning safety gear, open disclosure about potential work hazards, and a system of reporting lapses in safety. OSHA does not address job benefits and vacation time.

28
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Which of the following practices is prohibited by the Fair Debt Collection Practices Act (FDCPA)?
a. Calling a consumer after a consumer verbally requests the calls to cease.

b. Calling a consumer at 4 a.m.

c. Contacting a consumer's attorney.

d. Contacting the consumer's spouse regarding the debt owed.

b. Calling a consumer at 4 a.m.

The Fair Debt Collection Practices Act (FDCPA) prohibits harassment of customers by debt collectors. Calling a customer outside regular business hours is considered harassment. A customer must state in writing that she or he is in the process of resolving his or her debt for the collector to stop calling. The collector may continue to call unless the request is put in writing. The collector may contact the customer's attorney to discuss the case. The collector may call a spouse regarding the debt owed but is not allowed to call friends, neighbors, and employers.

29
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A 5-year-old patient is brought to the emergency room with a broken wrist and bruising clusters on both arms. What is the MOST appropriate initial response?
a. Chide the child about being more careful around hot water.

b. Order X-rays of the hands and feet.

c. Call child protective services.

d. Refer the patient to a dermatologist.

c. Call child protective services.

A child with a history of extremity fractures or bruising patterns may be a victim of abuse. The medical provider should not approach the family on his or her own; the Division of Family and Youth Services (DYFS) or Child Protective Services (CPS) should be called to investigate further. An orthopedist may be called to evaluate the patient's wrist, but CPS should be notified immediately.

30
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What is the medical term for a woman's first period?
a. Menopause.

b. Menses.

c. Menorrhagia.

d. Menarche.

d. Menarche.


Menarche is the medical term for the onset of menses. It usually occurs in a woman's early teens, although it may occur even earlier. The cessation of a woman's menses is called menopause. It usually occurs in the fourth or fifth decade of life.

31
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A patient is a suspected victim of domestic abuse. Which of the following questions is the MOST inappropriate?
a. How do you and your partner relate to each other?

b. Have you ever been concerned about your safety or that of your children?

c. Why do you allow yourself to be abused?

d. Is everything alright at home?

c. Why do you allow yourself to be abused?


Using a condescending or angry tone of voice or placing blame on the patient is not appropriate. The patient will not talk to a provider about sensitive issues such as abuse if he or she feels that he or she is being judged or blamed. The patient may become angry, especially if there is no ongoing abuse in the home. When talking to a patient about suspected abuse, the best approach is to ask open-ended questions regarding his or her health and feelings of safety in the home.

32
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Which of the following is not communicated by respiratory droplets?
a. Tuberculosis.

b. Hepatitis B.

c. Influenza.

d. Croup.

b. Hepatitis B.

Hepatitis B is an infection of the liver that is transmitted via blood or semen. Tuberculosis, influenza, and croup are respiratory diseases spread via droplets.

33
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Which of the following is a violation of Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)?
a. Discussing the patient's prognosis with his or her power of attorney.

b. Sending a patient's records to his or her designated primary care doctor.

c. Keeping yourself logged into the hospital computer to allow quicker documentation.

d. Disposing of sensitive documents in a shredder.

c. Keeping yourself logged into the hospital computer to allow quicker documentation.

Not logging off a computer properly exposes patients' sensitive information to others. Discussing the case with someone other than a patient's designated representative, sending patient records to physicians not directly involved in the patient's care, and improperly disposing of sensitive documents are other forms of HIPAA violations.

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Which of the following best describes universal precautions?
a. Treating human body fluids as if they contained infectious diseases.

b. Medical precautions taken when traveling abroad.

c. Ensuring the vaccination of all children.

d. The use of prophylactic medications.

a. Treating human body fluids as if they contained infectious diseases.

Universal precautions dictate that medical providers treat all patients and bodily fluids as if they had communicable diseases. Preventative measures such as gloves and consistent hand washing should be done at all times.

35
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Which of the following is the LEAST important piece of information when taking an urgent message?
a. Time of call.

b. Telephone number.

c. Address.

d. Name.

c. Address.

When taking an urgent message, the patient's name, brief summary of the issue, contact information, and time of call should be documented. An address could be helpful but is generally not warranted.

36
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Which of the following is NOT a venereal disease?
a. HIV.

b. Varicella.

c. Chlamydia.

d. Syphilis.

b. Varicella.

Varicella, also known as the chicken pox, is a viral infection commonly occurring in childhood. It is not a venereal or sexually transmitted disease. Although HIV can be transmitted through contaminated needles or blood products, it can also be transmitted through sexual contact. Chlamydia and syphilis are venereal diseases.

37
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Which of the following statements regarding the Truth in Lending Act (TILA) of 1968 is MOST accurate?
a. TILA limits the amount of interest that may be charged.

b. It mandates that the annual percentage rate (APR) must be disclosed to the consumer. Correct

c. TILA regulates the amount of fees that consumers can be charged for late payments.

d. It mandates businesses to work with consumers who have poor credit.

b. It mandates that the annual percentage rate (APR) must be disclosed to the consumer.

The Truth in Lending Act (TILA) mandates that information regarding the loan must be clearly disclosed to the consumer. It does not dictate the price of fees or interest rates or control who the lender is willing to lend to.

38
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Which medication is the LEAST likely to be investigated by the Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA)?
a. Oxycodone.

b. Pseudoephedrine.

c. Morphine sulfate.

d. Amoxicillin.

d. Amoxicillin.

The Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA) regulates controlled substances such as narcotics and substances that can be used to make illegal drugs. Pseudoephedrine can be used to make methamphetamine. Amoxicillin is a common antibiotic and would be of little interest to the DEA.

39
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Which of the following conditions is the MOST dangerous?
a. Croup.

b. Ankle fracture.

c. Third-degree burn. Correct

d. Conjunctivitis.

c. Third-degree burn.

Burns are graded in severity from first to fourth-first being the most mild while fourth-degree burns carrying the highest mortality. Croup is a common respiratory viral illness in children; it is typically not life- threatening. An ankle fracture may be painful but will not kill a person. Conjunctivitis may be a viral, bacterial, or allergic infection of the eye; like ankle fractures they may be uncomfortable but are not life- threatening.

40
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What is the MOST common blood-borne illness in the United States?
a. Roseola.

b. AIDS.

c. Varicella.

d. Hepatitis C.

d. Hepatitis C.


Hepatitis C is an infection of the liver that is transmitted through sex, infected blood products, or contaminated needles. AIDS is also transmitted through the same mechanisms but dies quickly in the air. A medical provider is much more likely to get hepatitis C from a needle stick than AIDS. Roseola and varicella are viral infections that occur in childhood and are not transmitted through blood.

41
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Which of the following classes of medications would NOT be controlled by the Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA)?
a. Antibiotics.

b. Antipsychotics.

c. Benzodiazepines.

d. Narcotics.

a. Antibiotics.

Antibiotics hold little interest for the Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA). The DEA controls prescriptive drugs such as benzodiazepines, antipsychotic medications, narcotics, and other medications that have high risk for abuse.

42
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Which of the following is NOT a function of the Center for Disease Control (CDC)?
a. Identifies national and international health threats.

b. Regulates and supervises vaccines.

c. Develops laboratory guidelines.

d. Promotes healthy behaviors and practices.

b. Regulates and supervises vaccines.

The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) regulates and supervises the safety, development, and administration of vaccines, medications, and medical supplements. The Centers for Disease Control's (CDC's) job is to identify health risks and devise ways to control or contain potential outbreaks in addition to developing laboratory guidelines and promoting healthy behaviors and practices.

43
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What bodily fluid has the highest risk for transmitting HIV/AIDS?
a. Saliva.

b. Feces.

c. Urine.

d. Semen.

d. Semen.

Semen and blood have the highest risk for transmitting AIDS. There is minimal risk of transmitting it through saliva, feces, and urine.

44
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Which situation is the best example of implied consent?
a. Rolling up a sleeve for a blood pressure check.

b. Signing paperwork agreeing to a surgery.

c. Nodding in the affirmative prior to a procedure.

d. Verbalizing one's comprehension of the risks and benefits of treatment.

a. Rolling up a sleeve for a blood pressure check.

Implied consent is agreement to something via action without verbally expressing agreement. Rolling up a sleeve for a blood pressure check indicates willingness to have the blood pressure taken.

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What is the best statement that describes an emancipated minor?
a. A person who is freed from control of their parents.

b. Someone who is charged with a crime in their childhood.

c. A person who is adopted in young adulthood.

d. Someone who cannot make his or her own medical decisions.

a. A person who is freed from control of their parents.

An emancipated minor is a person younger than 18 who has been freed from control of his or her parents. He or she must provide for themselves financially, and his or her parents are not legally responsible for the child's actions.

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All of the following are within a medical assistant's scope of practice EXCEPT:

a. scheduling patient appointments.

b. performing laceration repair.

c. documenting vital signs.

d. administering electrocardiograms.

b. performing laceration repair.

Medical assistants have a wide breadth of practice that may include administrative duties, documenting vital signs, making patient appointments, administering electrocardiograms, and acting as a patient liaison. Medical assistants cannot prescribe, interpret labs or radiological tests, or perform invasive procedures such as laceration repairs.

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Which of the following describes the ability to make one's own medical decisions?

a. Tort.

b. Capacity.

c. Living will.

d. Deposition.

b. Capacity.

Having capacity means having the cognitive ability to understand medical information being relayed and to make informed, rational decisions based on that information. If a patient's capacity is in question, a psychiatrist is consulted to help make that determination.

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Which of the following is a function of the Food and Drug Administration (FDA)?

a. Sets drug prices.

b. Regulates dietary supplements.

c. Creates vaccines for emerging illnesses.

d. Develops new prescription drugs.

b. Regulates dietary supplements.

The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is responsible for the regulation and supervision of the safety, development, and administration of vaccines, medications, and medical supplements, but the FDA does not create vaccines or develop new prescription drugs, nor does it set drug prices.

49
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What is the legal term requiring a patient to appear in court to provide certain documentation?

a. Locum tenens.

b. Subpoena duces tecum.

c. Arbitration.

d. Res ipsa loquitor.

b. Subpoena duces tecum.

Subpoena duces tecum is a legal notice that demands a patient must appear in court at a set time and date and provide certain documentation for a case. This may include medical records, bank statements, and computer files. Failure to comply can result in legal penalties such as fines or jail time.

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A physician prescribes a medication to a patient who develops an anaphylactic reaction and subsequently dies. It is documented in the patient's chart that he or she was allergic to this medication. What type of crime did the physician commit?

a. Assault.

b. Slander.

c. Negligence.

d. Libel.

c. Negligence.

The physician committed negligence by failing to properly care for the patient. The physician did not notice or did not pay attention to the patient's documented allergies. It may have not been intended, but the physician may face a lawsuit for the error in judgment.

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According to Erikson's stages of development, which of the following conflicts would not take place during school-age years?

a. Initiative versus guilt.

b. Industry versus inferiority.

c. Identity versus confusion.

d. Generativity versus stagnation.

d. Generativity versus stagnation.

Generativity versus stagnation generally occurs in the retirement years when people may remain active and involved with community and family. If they fail to do so, they may become isolated and depressed.

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Which of the following would be the LEAST helpful when trying to communicate with someone who speaks little English?

a. Having a staff member translate.

b. Ensuring that an English-speaking family member or friend is present.

c. Speaking slowly in a loud voice.

d. Having consent forms that are in the patient's native language.

c. Speaking slowly in a loud voice. Correct

If a patient does not speak English, speaking slowly and loudly will not help him or her understand the message. A translator needs to be present as well as an English-speaking family member. Consent forms written in the patient's native language would also be helpful.

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A patient calls the office demanding to speak to the physician immediately regarding an urgent issue. What is the MOST important initial question to ask the patient?

a. What is the issue regarding?

b. When did you last come to the office for a visit?

c. Can you call back later when the physician isn't busy?

d. What is your insurance plan?

a. What is the issue regarding?

Acting as a gateway is helpful to a physician when taking messages. The physician may be busy with patients in the office. Getting a brief message from the patient will help the physician triage the importance of the call and help him or her better manage the workload.

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A physician is accused of molesting a patient while she was under anesthesia. What crime did the physician allegedly commit?

a. Negligence.

b. Theft.

c. Assault.

d. Perjury.

c. Assault.

The physician allegedly committed assault. This is a serious crime that can result in fees, loss of licensure, and jail time. To help protect oneself against false claims, a chaperone should always be present.

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An elderly patient with known history of mild Alzheimer's disease gives a $50 bill for her $20 copay. What is the MOST appropriate action?

a. Give the woman $30.

b. Take the extra money, and donate it to Alzheimer's research.

c. Put the extra money in the office's petty cash.

d. Buy the office staff lunch.

a. Give the woman $30.

Taking the woman's money and keeping it or buying something with it is theft. Depending on the situation and the amount of money taken, it can result in fees, loss of licensure, and jail time. The only appropriate action is to give the woman the correct change.

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A woman is diagnosed with chlamydia. What should she be advised to do next?

a. Continue having unprotected sex because she has been treated.

b. Don't tell anyone about the diagnosis because it may ruin her reputation.

c. Once she has contracted the disease, she will have immunity to it.

d. Call previous partners, and inform them of her diagnosis.

d. Call previous partners, and inform them of her diagnosis.

Chlamydia is a treatable sexually transmitted disease. She should be advised to use protection with every sexual encounter. She should also be counseled to call prior partners and advise them of her diagnosis, so they can get themselves checked.

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A child is brought to the hospital by his father with a concussion and fractured arm. This is the second episode. What is the MOST appropriate initial action?

a. Blame the mother.

b. Call an orthopedist.

c. Call Child Protective Services.

d. Blame the father.

c. Call Child Protective Services.

Calling Child Protective Services (CPS) is the most appropriate initial action. Afterward the medical staff should call an orthopedist to evaluate the child's arm. Placing blame on a particular caretaker is unfair and unprofessional. Let CPS investigate the case further.

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A patient has a history of verbally abusing the office staff and the physician. The patient has a complicated medical history that requires frequent office visits. What can be done about this patient? a. Send the patient to the emergency room for medical care.

b. Terminate the patient-physician relationship.

c. Try and have the patient arrested.

d. Refuse to schedule appointments for the patient.

b. Terminate the patient-physician relationship.

A physician may terminate a patient provided that the decision is made in writing and the patient is given appropriate notice to find another physician. Refusing to care for the patient during the notice period is inappropriate.

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Which of the following measures may help prevent workplace accidents?

a. Dim lighting.

b. Hoyer lifts.

c. Non-adjustable equipment.

d. Tile floors.

b. Hoyer lifts.

Hoyer lifts are transfer assistance devices to help prevent back injuries in health care who assist patients to and from bed. These are especially useful for immobile patients. Dim lighting may increase the risk of bumping into equipment and falls. Non-adjustable equipment increases the risk of ergonomic injuries. Tile floors can be slick and may increase falls.

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What is the Latin phrase that means "without negligence the accident would not have happened"?

a. Per diem.

b. Respondeat superior.

c. Carpe diem.

d. Res ipsa loquitur.

d. Res ipsa loquitur.

Res ipsa loquitur means that an accident would not have occurred without negligence, for example, if a patient is accidentally given a medication that he or she is allergic to and develops a reaction. Although the incident was an accident, the medical provider was negligent in not reviewing the patient's allergies first.