Practice test 5: questions i dont know

The transparent outer portion of the eye that allows for passage of light into the eye is called the:

a. pupil

b. cornea

c. retina

d. optic disk

b. cornea

FYI:

Pupil- regulates the amount of light entering eye, protecting the retina

retina- has cones/ rods, where the image forms

optic disk- exit point for ganglion cells, where they connect and form optic nerve

Blood passing into the kidney is filtered across a thin, specialized membrane called the:

a. glomerulus

b. loop of Henle

c. bowman’s capsule

d. distal convoluted tubule

a. glomerulus

In the diagram of the female reproductive system, label the following:

a. fundus of the uterus

b. ovarian ligament

c. ovarian follicle

d. oviducts (uterine tube)

The segment of the vertebral column that is characterized by foramina in the transverse process is termed the:

a. sacral vertebrae

b. lumbar vertebrae

c. thoracic vertebrae

d. cervical vertebrae

d. cervical vertebrae

The two large bones that help to form the majority of the adult pelvis are the:

a. cruciate bones

b. styloid bones

c. innominate bones

d. sesamoid bones

c. innominate bones

The large bony ridges of the proximal femur that serve to attach many of the muscles for hip movement are called the :

a. greater and lesser trochanters

b. greater and lesser condyles

c. superior and inferior malleoli

d. superior and inferior facets

a. greater and lesser trochanters`

The outlet portion of the normal human stomach is the:

a. fundus

b. duodenum

c. upper esophagus

d. pylorus

d. pylorus

Which letter corresponds to the semicircular canals:

C

The impulses for visual sensation will pass into the occipital lobe of the brain by way of the second cranial nerve called the:

a. optic nerve

b. olfactory nerve

c. ophthalmic nerve

d. oculomotor nerve

a. optic nerve

In the both the male and female fetuses, the primary s*x organs develop behind the peritoneum near the:

a. urinary bladder

b. symphysis pubis

c. trigone

d. kidney

d. kidney

A digestive tract organ least responsible for the absorption of water is the:

A. Stomach

B. Esophagus

C. Small Intestines

D. Large Intestines

B esophagus

In the normal adult, the ureters will attach to the urinary bladder at its:

a. anterior lateral surface

b. posterior lateral surface

c. anterior inferior surface

d. posterior inferior surface

b. posterior lateral surface

A serious condition that results from the hypofunction of the islets of Langerhans of the pancreases is:

a. diabetes mellitus

b. hemophilia

c. hydrophobia

d. hepatitis

a. diabetes mellitus

The semifluid central portion of an intervertebral disk is called the:

a. nucleus pulposus

b. nucleus fibrous

c. annulus fibrous

d. annulus pulposus

a. nucleus pulposus

label

acromion

coracoid process

axillary border

acromion D

coracoid process E

axillary border I

1 Which of the following represents the left lobe of the liver?

2 Which represents the right main portal vein?

1. 5

2. 3

https://quizlet.com/au/392100572/coronal-ct-of-liver-segments-diagram/

The cell mainly responsible for fighting infection in the body is:
a. lymphocyte

b. erythrocyte

c. chondrocyte

d. none of these

a. lymphocyte

The ovary is a common site of metastasis from a carcinoma in which the primary site is the:

a. uterus

b. colon

c. kidney

d. spleen

b. colon

The ovary is a common site of metastasis from a carcinoma in which the primary site is the:

a. diverticulum

b. aneurysm

c. calculus

d. fistula

a. diverticulum

The connective tissue immediately lateral to the uterine cervix

a. parametrium

b parasagittal

c. myometrium

d. perineum

a. parametrium

The ureters attach to the ___ surface of the bladder

a. anterior

b. posterolateral

c. superior

d. inferior

b. posterolateral

Renal cell carcinoma has immediate access to the blood route via the:

a. portal vein

b. superior vena cava

c. inferior vena cava and abdominal aorta

d. mesenteric and femoral artery

c. inferior vena cava and abdominal aorta

The area of the cerebrum responsible for sensory and association is the:

a. frontal area

b. parietal area

c. temporal area

d. occipital area

b. parietal area

Tonsillar tumors are:

a. radioresistant

b. radiosensitive

c. very rare

d. untreatable

b. radiosensitive

most common and best prognosis of oropharynx

Plummer Vinson syndrome (iron deficiency anemia) often seen in females, is considered an important etiologic factor in which of the following cnacers?

a. oral cavity

b. oropharynx

c. nasopharynx

d. larynx

a. oral cavity

Oral cavity (tongue), hypopharynx, esophageal

MAC stage A for colorectal cancer correlates to the TNM system stage____

0

I
II
III

0

Of the following statements about breast cancer, which is incorrect?

a. It is the 2nd leading cause of cancer death in women

b. The probability of control is a function of tumor size and radiation size

c. The majority of breast cancers are carcinomas

d. Adenocarcinomas arise from the lining of the lactiferous ducts

c. The majority of breast cancers are carcinomas

The majority are adenocarcinoma

Tumors of mesothelial or endothelial origin are usually called:

a. carcinomas

b. basal cell carcinomas

c. fibromas

d. sarcomas

d. sarcomas

Tumor growth depends on---

I. The rate of division of proliferating cells;

II. The fraction of the total tumor cell population that is dividing;

III. The site of the tumor.

IV. The degree of cell loss from the tumor.

I,II, IV

The most common type of prostatic carcinoma is:

a. adenocarcinoma

b. SCC

c. BCC

d. Melanoma

a. adenocarcinoma

The most common types of renal cell carcinoma are:

a. clear and granular cell and spindle

b. clear and differentiate

d. undifferentiated and granular cell

c. adeno and columnar

a. clear and granular cell and spindle

A diffuse endothelioma which forms a fusiform swelling on a long bone is a/an:

a. myeloid sarcoma

b. reticulum cell sarcoma

c. Ewing’s sarcoma

d. spindle cell sarcoma

c. Ewing’s sarcoma

The most common symptom of carcinoma of the cervix is:

a. vaginal bleeding

b. clear discharge

c. pain

d. edema

a. vaginal bleeding

Bowel obstruction most commonly occurs in what area of the colon?

a. ascending

b. sigmoid

c. transverse

d. descending

b. sigmoid

The release of bile by the gallbladder is triggered by the presence of ______ in the stomach. (select all that apply)

1. Carbohydrates;

2. Clear liquids;

3. Fats

3 fats

Patients with Hodkin's disease usually present with symptoms which include---I. Nausea; II. Edema; III. Weight loss; IV. Localized adenopathy (Select all that apply)

III. IV

adenopathy: enlargement or swelling of lymph nodes,

A rare, slow growing tumor of the brain is:

a. Ependymoma

b. Astrocytoma

c. Metastatic brain tumor

d. oligodendroglioma

D. oligodendroglioma

FYI:

not astrocytoma cuz its one of the most common primary brain tumors

not mets because it is the most common type of brain tumor

Lymphatic spread of an anal lesion is by way of the----I. Obturator nodes; II. Iliac nodes; III. Inguinal nodes (select all that apply)

I, II, III

A severe complication associated with excessive irradiation of the liver is:

a. Thrombocytopenia

b. cholelithiasis

c. acute hepatitis

d. diabetes

c. acute hepatitis

A common site for metastatic spread from the liver is the: 1. Stomach; 2. Lung; 3. Brain

(select all that appy)

all

Hemoglobin may often be affected when treating the cervix or ovaries for cancer, making anemia a major concern for the patient. What is the normal hemoglobin percentage range?

a. 10 to 11 g/dL

b. 12 to 16 g/dL

c. 14 to 18 g/dL

d. 36 to 47 g/dL

b. 12 to 16 g/dL

Which lymph nodes are the first to be involved in the spread of a seminoma?

a. ipsilateral iliac nodes

b. para aortic nodes

c. mediastinal nodes

d. supraclavicular nodes

a. ipsilateral iliac nodes

All of the following are malignant tumors of the lymphoreticular tissue except:

a. lymphosarcoma

b. reticulum cell carcinoma

c. HD

d. leukemia

d. leukemia

A condition in which extensive mets causes most of the bone marrow to be replaced by cancer cells is called ________________ anemia

a. myelophthisic

b. pernicious RBC

c. aplastic

d. hemolytic RBC

a. myelophthisic

FYI:

pernicious RBC: Pernicious anemia is a type of vitamin B12 deficiency anemia caused by an inability to absorb B12 due to a lack of intrinsic factor (IF), which causes large, dysfunctional RBCs

Aplastic Anemia: a rare, serious, and potentially life-threatening blood disorder where bone marrow fails to produce enough new blood cells (red, white, and platelets).

Hemolytic RBCs: Hemolyzed red blood cells are damaged or destroyed cells that release hemoglobin into the surrounding plasma or serum. This process, known as hemolysis,

A neoplasm is a/an _________ growth

a. new

b. malignant

c. inflamed

d. radioresistant

a. new

The most radiosensitive lymphoma is:

a. Hodgkin’s disease

b. reticulum cell

c. lymphosarcoma

d. giant follicular cell

a. Hodgkin’s disease

In assessing radiosensitivity, a __ is found to be poorly radiosensitive

a. Hodgkin’s disease

b. glioma

c. basal cell carcinoma

d. medulloblastoma

b. glioma

Tumors of the base or posterior portion of the tongue are:

a. more radiosensitive

b. less radiosensitive

c. radioresistant

d. untreatable

b. less radiosensitive

Feedback

While we haven't had this specific information in the past, one way to may be ascertained an answer using deductive reasoning is that all of the terms except "more radiosensitive" are pretty much synonymous with each other. So picking the term that is not meaning essentially the same thing as all the other answers make sense.

The A.S.I.S. is located at about what spinal level?

S2

FYI
ASIS: Anterior Superior Iliac Spine

Post cricoid tumors are the only head and neck tumors that are more common in:

a. men

b. women

c. children

d. older persons

b. women

Distant mets which occurs early in ca of the bronchus commonly affects the:

a. bones

b. brain

c. liver

d. all of these

d. all of these

(lung ca mets to all)

Malignant thyroid tumors occur most frequently in:

a. men

b. women

c. children

d. occurs equally for all of the above

b. women

The chief type of ca the anus is:

SCC

A common location for distant mets form seminoma is:

a. brain

b. skin

c. liver

d. lung

d. lung

The lower border of the inverted Y field for the management of early-stage seminoma is at the level of:

a. The ischial tuberosity

b. The symphysis pubis

c. The lower edge of the SI joints

d. The lesser trochanter

b. The symphysis pubis

Common metastatic site(s) for renal cell carcinoma is/are:

a. bone

b. brain

c. lung

d. all fo the above

d. all of the above

Intense desquamation may occur in the gluteal fold during radiation therapy to the lower pelvis. Patients should be advised to:

a. Used cold packs in the folds twice daily

b. Take hot baths daily

c. Apply Vaseline every other day

d. Gently pat the area dry after each toilet

d. Gently pat the area dry after each toilet

The most common cancer of germinal origins of the testis is:

a. Teratocarcinoma

b. Choriocarcinoma

c. Seminoma

d. Embryonal

c. Seminoma

A carcinogen linked to renal cell and bladder carcinomas found in radiation therapy departments is:

a. Benzene

b. Asbestos

c. Cadmium

d. Leather

c. Cadmium

Which of the following brain tumors have the tendency to spread via the CSF?

A. Glioma

B. Astrocytoma

C. Medulloblastoma

D. Oligodendroglioma

C. Medulloblastoma

When leukemic cells accumulate in the bone marrow, there is an impairment of the body’s normal production of adequate supplies of:

A. WBC

B. RBC

C. Platelets

B. RBC

Which of the leukemias is not associated with previous radiation exposure?

A. ALL
B. AML
C. CLL
D. CML

C. CLL

Patients treated with methotrexate develop a rapid onset of bone morrow depression, with nadir occurring within a range of:

a. 3-5 days

b. 5-10 days

c. 10-14 days

d. 15-20 days

c. 10-14 days

In which of the following phase(s) of the cell cycle may the undifferentiated cells have a decreased proportion of blast cells compared with normal bone marrow blast cells in regards to the pathology of AML? 1. S; 2. M; 3. G1

a. 1,2

b.1,3

c.2,3

d. 1,2,3

a. 1,2

Which of the following is not an associated risk factor for pediatric solid tumors?

a. parasites

b. environmental

c. ionizing radiation

d. prenatal factors

a. parasites

The most common symptom for Ewing’s sarcoma is:

a. weight loss

b. neurologic abnormalities

c. pain

d. fever

c. pain

The most frequent orbital malignancy in children

Retinoblastoma

involvement of cranial nerve___ may manifest as dysphagia:

a. IX

b. VII
c. VI
d. V

a IX (glossopharyngeal )

Which of the leukemias appear to have a hereditary component?

a. ALL
b. AML
c. CLL

d. CML

c. CLL

Limb salvage surgery would include:

a. intralesional incision

b. wide margin excision with bone grafting

c. marginal margin excision with internal fixation

d. all of the above

d. all of the above

What is the likely explanation for weight loss and fever in the patient suspected to have primary bone cancer?

Option A: Presence of the tumor causes infection and loss of appetite

Option B: Presence of the tumor causes physiologic cachexia

Option C: Presence of the tumor causes hypercalcemia

Option D: Presence of the tumor causes hyperthyroidism

Option C: Presence of the tumor causes hypercalcemia

The most common childhood bone cancer in children under 10, is:

A. Chondrosarcoma

B. Fibrosarcoma

C. Osteosarcoma

D. Ewing Sarcoma

D. Ewing Sarcoma

DOUBLE CHECK internet says osteosarcoma #1, ewings #2

Which of the following is not considered a premalignant condition?

a. leukoplakia of the mouth

b. erythroplakia of the mouth

c. dysplasia of the mouth

d. Crohn’s disease

c (double check)