ATPL (Philippines) - Operational Procedures 2

For aircraft certified before the 1st April 1998, cockpit voice recorder must keep the conversations and sound alarms recorded during the last:

A) flight

B) 25 hours of operation

C) 30 minutes of operation

D) 48 hours of operation

C) 30 minutes of operation

For the flight crew members, quickly-fitted oxygen masks are compulsory on board any pressurized aircraft flying at a pressure altitude greater than:

A) 13,000ft

B) 10,000ft

C) 25,000ft

D) 29,000ft

C) 25,000ft

Aircraft using a VFR flight plan in controlled airspace shall be equipped: (Annex 6, Part1)

A) Only as is necessary for aircraft that make VFR flights

B) As is necessary for aircraft that operate in accordance with instrument flight rules

C) With more anti-icing and/or de-icing devices (if one expects icing conditions)

D) As is necessary for aircraft that make VFR flights, and such aircraft must also possess indicators of altitude and course, along with a precise barometric altimeter

B) As is necessary for aircraft that operate in accordance with instrument flight rules

A recent aircraft must be provided with a flight data recorder when its certified take-off gross weight is greater than:

A) 20,000kg

B) 5,700kg

C) 14,000kg

D) 27,000kg

B) 5,700kg

An operator must ensure that the lowest MDH for a non-precision approach procedure which is based upon the use of an NDB is not lower than:

A) 150ft.

B) 200ft.

C) 300ft.

D) 250ft.

C) 300ft.

Aeroplanes being operated over a specified altitude are required to carry equipment. which continuously monitors the dose rate of cosmic radiation. This specified altitude is:

A) 15,000 ft.

B) 36,090 ft.

C) 49,000 ft.

D) 66,000 ft.

C) 49,000 ft.

To operate an aircraft as commander a pilot must have:

A) Carried out at least 3 take-offs and 3 landings in an aeroplane of the same type or a flight simulator in the preceding 60 days

B) Carried out at least 5 take-offs and 3 landings in an aeroplane of the same type or a flight simulator in the preceding 60 days

C) Carried out at least 5 take-offs and 3 landings in an aeroplane of the same type or a flight simulator in the preceding 90 days

D) Carried out at least 3 take-offs and 3 landings in an aeroplane of the same type or a flight simulator in the preceding 90 days

D) Carried out at least 3 take-offs and 3 landings in an aeroplane of the same type or a flight simulator in the preceding 90 days

After an accident, the operator of an airplane equipped with a flight recorder must keep the original recordings for a minimum period of:

A) 60 days

B) 45 days

C) 90 days

D) 30 days

A) 60 days

An operator must ensure that for the duration of each flight, be kept on the ground, if required:

A) the calculation of the airborne fuel quantity

B) the aircraft equipment report (logbook)

C) a copy of the calculated take-off performances

D) a copy of the weight and balance sheet

D) a copy of the weight and balance sheet

A category C aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual maneuver only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to:

A) 3600m

B) 2400m

C) 1500m

D) 1600m

B) 2400m

A category B aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual maneuver only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to:

A) 2400m

B) 1500m

C) 3600m

D) 1600m

D) 1600m

A category A aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual maneuver only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to:

A) 1500m

B) 2400m

C) 3600m

D) 1600m

A) 1500m

The pilot of a category A aircraft is flying a non-precision direct IFR approach with the following operational minimums: MDH 250ft and visibility 750 meters. RVR for threshold, mid and end of the runway are given by the controller...

A) the pilot may start the final approach if the three RVR are higher than 750 meters

B) flying a non-precision approach, the pilot may start the final approach only if he has a meteorological visibility higher than 750 meters. RVR are to be taken into account only for precision approaches

C) the pilot may start the final approach if the threshold RVR is higher than 750 meters

D) the pilot may start the final approach if the threshold and mid-RVR are higher than 750 meters

C) the pilot may start the final approach if the threshold RVR is higher than 750 meters

For a twin engine aeroplane, the standard operational take-off minimums may be used provided an alternate aerodrome is accessible at less than:

A) 60 minutes at cruising speed with one engine unserviceable

B) 60 minutes at cruising speed all engines running

C) 30 minutes at cruising speed all engines running

D) 30 minutes at cruising speed with one engine unserviceable

A) 60 minutes at cruising speed with one engine unserviceable

A visual approach is defined as:

A) an approach when either part or all of an instrument approach procedure is not completed and the approach is executed with visual reference to the terrain.

B) the visual phase of an approach to bring an aeroplane into a position for landing on a runway which is not suitably located for a straight-in approach.

C) a take-off where the RVR is less than 800m.

D) a procedure applied at an aerodrome for the purpose of ensuring safe operations during CAT II and CAT III approaches.

A) an approach when either part or all of an instrument approach procedure is not completed and the approach is executed with visual reference to the terrain.

A category IIIC precision approach (CAT IIIC) is an approach with:

A) a runway visual range of at least 50m

B) a runway visual range of at least 200m

C) a runway visual range of at least 350m

D) no runway visual range limits

D) no runway visual range limits

What is the minimum recent experience for an aircraft commander?

A) One take-off and landing in the preceding 90 days.

B) Three simulator flights in the preceding 90 days.

C) Two simulator flights in the last 12 months.

D) Three take-offs landings in the preceding 90 days .

D) Three take-offs landings in the preceding 90 days .

A flight under IFR should not be commenced unless the weather conditions at destination and a nominated alternate are on:

A) arrival equal to and above the operating minima for aerodrome use.

B) arrival equal to or above, within a reasonable period of time before and after the nominated time, the operating minima for aerodrome use.

C) departure equal to or above the operating minima for aerodrome use.

D) or above the minima between departure and the ETA.

B) arrival equal to or above, within a reasonable period of time before and after the nominated time, the operating minima for aerodrome use.

How far away can a take-off alternate be for a 2-engined aeroplane?

A) 60 mins at one engine cruise speed.

B) 120 mins at one engine cruise speed.

C) 60 mins at normal cruise speed.

D) 120 mins at normal cruise speed.

A) 60 mins at one engine cruise speed.

Normally, in the event of ditching, it is recommended that the gear is... and the flaps are...

A) down, up.

B) up, up.

C) up, down.

D) down, down.

C) up, down.

Fuel jettison should be carried out:

A) anywhere if unavoidable.

B) over the sea.

C) above 10.000ft AGL.

D) all answers are correct.

D) all answers are correct.

What is the required RVR for CAT IIIA operations?

A) 150m

B) 1.000m

C) 1500m

D) 200m

D) 200m

While approaching a mountainous airfield, the captain of a transport aircraft notices a fast and high increase in the indicated airspeed without any change in the preselected engine and attitude parameters. The preceding crews had reported the occurrence of windshears in final phase. You must:

A) reduce rapidly the selected thrust, maintain on the glide path

B) maintain the aircraft on the glide path, accept a positive speed deviation, monitor the speed evolution

C) reduce rapidly the selected thrust in order to reach 1.2Vs and try a precision landing

D) take a level flight attitude to reduce speed, then come back to glide path from above

B) maintain the aircraft on the glide path, accept a positive speed deviation, monitor the speed evolution

In accordance with DOC 4444 (ICAO) when a MEDIUM and a LIGHT aircraft are using the same runway, or parallel runways separated by less than 760m (in approach or departure phases of flight), shall be applied a wake turbulence radar separation minima of:

A) 2NM

B) 3NM

C) 5NM

D) 4NM

C) 5NM

The greatest wake turbulence occurs when the generating aircraft is:

A) small, light, at maximum speed in full flaps configuration

B) small, light, at low speed in clean configuration

C) large, heavy, at maximum speed in full flaps configuration

D) large, heavy, at low speed in clean configuration

D) large, heavy, at low speed in clean configuration

The time needed for the dissipation of a turbulent wake created by a wide-body aircraft during take-off is about:

A) 3 minutes

B) 1 minute

C) 10 minutes

D) 30 seconds

A) 3 minutes

For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation distance and minimum time if a medium aeroplane (less than 136000kg and more than 7000kg) is following directly behind a heavy aeroplane on the approach to the same runway?

A) 9.3km (4NM) and 2 minutes

B) 9.3km (4NM) and 3 minutes

C) 7.4km (4NM) and 2 minutes

D) 11.1km (4NM) and 3 minutes

A) 9.3km (4NM) and 2 minutes

Wake turbulence should be taken into account when:

A) a preceding aeroplane has performed low altitude high roll rate rolling manoeuvres over the runway

B) just before the landing a much lighter aeroplane has landed with a strong crosswind on a long runway

C) a much heavier aeroplane has landed just previously on the same runway, a light crosswind condition exist and all high-lift devices are being used

D) during cruise the vertical separation is reduced to 1000ft

C) a much heavier aeroplane has landed just previously on the same runway, a light crosswind condition exist and all high-lift devices are being used

When a LIGHT aircraft is landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, the wake turbulence non-radar minimum time approach separation, according with DOC 4444 (ICAO), shall be:

A) 1 min

B) 2 min

C) 3 min

D) 4 min

C) 3 min

In case of a serious threat based on the presence of a bomb on board a pressurized aircraft and disregarding any fuel considerations:

A) you go down to the level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude and keep the airplane in a clean configuration until the final approach

B) you descend to the flight level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude or the safety altitude if higher and take preventive steps by putting yourself in a landing approach configuration

C) you carry out an emergency descend to reach the safety altitude

D) you climb to the maximum flight level which does not need the use of pressurization

B) you descend to the flight level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude or the safety altitude if higher and take preventive steps by putting yourself in a landing approach configuration

JAR Ops 1.465 (VFR Operating minima), establishes that, the operator shall ensure about VFR flights,that:

A) For conducted VFR flights in airpace F, vertical distance from clouds is 250m at least.

B) Special VFR flights are not commenced when visibility is less than 3km.

C) For conducted VFR flights in airspace B, horizontal distance from clouds is 1000 m at least.

D) For conducted VFR flights in airspace E, flight visibility at and above 3050 m (10000 ft) is 5 km at least (clear of cloud)

B) Special VFR flights are not commenced when visibility is less than 3km.

A category II precision approach (CAT II) is an approach with:

A) A decision height of a least 100 ft

B) No decision height

C) A decision height of a least 200 ft

D) A decision height of a least 50 ft

A) A decision height of a least 100 ft

What are the rules on the carriage of PRMs?

A) Cannot impede the performance of crew duty

B) Must be seated away from emergency exits

C) No more than 5% of passengers may be PRMs

D) They must provide their own food

A) Cannot impede the performance of crew duty

A copy of what info is to be left on the ground?

A) Passenger manifests, notification of special passengers

B) Route specific maps and charts

C) NOTAMs, tech log, Op flight plan, mass&balance, spec load notification

D) AICs , AISs, and all company NOTAMs

C) NOTAMs, tech log, Op flight plan, mass&balance, spec load notification

When cleared to execute a published side-step maneuver, at what point is the pilot expected to commence this maneuver?

A) At the published DH.

B) At the MDA published or a circling approach.

C) As soon as possible after the runway environment is in sight.

C) As soon as possible after the runway environment is in sight.

When cleared to execute a published sidestep maneuver for a specific approach and landing on the parallel runway, at what point is the pilot expected to commence this maneuver?

A) At the published minimum altitude for a circling approach.

B) As soon as possible after the runway or runway environment is in sight.

C) At the localizer MDA minimums and when the runway is in sight.

B) As soon as possible after the runway or runway environment is in sight.