OptoPrep NBEO Practice Questions

If a thin lens with an index of 1.5 has a dioptric power of +4.00 in air, what is its power if placed in water?

A) +1.18 diopters
B) +11.76 diopters
C) +1.36 diopters
D) +4.00 diopters

C) +1.36 diopters

Alpha helices and beta sheets are considered which level of protein structure?

A) Quaternary
B) Primary
C) Tertiary
D) Secondary

D) Secondary

An amphipathic molecule will react in what manner when exposed to water?

A) It will completely dissolve
B) It will form a gas
C) It will combust
D) It will form micelles

D) It will form micelles

Coenzyme Q, vitamins A, D, E and K, and cholesterol are all derived from which of the following lipids?

A) Triglycerides
B) Phospholipids
C) Sphingolipids
D) Isoprenes and terpenes

D) Isoprenes and terpenes

Dietary triglycerides are metabolized primarily by which organ of the body?

A) Kidney
B) Liver and gall bladder
C) Intestine
D) Stomach

C) Intestine

Fatty acid synthesis is activated during which of the following situations?

A) Decreased levels of citrate and glucagon, increased levels of insulin
B) Increased levels of citrate and insulin, decreased levels of glucagon
C) Decreased levels of citrate and insulin, increased levels of glucagon
D) Increased levels of citrate and glucagon, decreased levels of insulin
E) Increased levels of citrate, decreased levels of glucagon and insulin
F) Decreased levels of citrate, increased levels of glucagon and insulin

B) Increased levels of citrate and insulin, decreased levels of glucagon

Glycolysis occurs at which location within a eukaryotic cell?

A) Nucleus
B) Cellular membrane
C) Cytosol
D) Mitochondrion
E) Endoplasmic Reticulum

C) Cytosol

A 10-year old child presents in your office with a unilateral follicular conjunctivitis along with ipsilateral adenopathy. You correctly diagnose oculoglandular syndrome. Because it is the most common etiology, which of the following causes are you MOST likely to suspect?

A) Measles
B) Cat-scratch disease
C) Coccidioidomycosis
D) Diabetes
E) Toxoplasmosis

B) Cat-scratch disease

A 24-year old female patient is seen at your office and reports that her eyes have been red for a few days. Biomicroscopy reveals bilateral diffuse superficial punctate keratitis (SPK) that stains with sodium fluorescein with no mucopurulent discharge. Based ONLY upon the corneal staining pattern, what is the MOST likely origin of her condition?

A) Dry eyes
B) Viral
C) Foreign Body
D) Bacterial

B) Viral

A 32-year old male is seen at your office and is in a fair amount of pain. He can barely open his right eye and reports that the pain began this morning when he first opened his eyes. His medical history is unremarkable, and he does not wear contact lenses. His ocular history is remarkable for a mild corneal abrasion of the right eye from a tree branch that occurred over a month ago but had since healed. Biomicroscopy (after instillation of a topical anesthetic) reveals an epithelial defect 1.5mm wide and 1.0mm long that stains with sodium fluorescein. There is no anterior chamber reaction and no visible discharge. What is the MOST appropriate diagnosis?

A) Corneal ulcer (microbial keratitis)
B) Epithelial basement membrane dystrophy
C) Corneal abrasion
D) Recurrent corneal abrasion

D) Recurrent corneal abrasion

A 42-year old construction worker presents to you with a history of getting plaster in his right eye. He complains of pain, foreign body sensation, and photophobia. His acuity is reduced in that eye to 20/50 with a normal pupillary response. What type of chemical trauma did the worker experience, and what would be your first therapeutic intervention?

A) Thermal burn and lavage eye with balanced saline solution for 30 minutes
B) Alkali burn and lavage eye with balanced saline solution for 30 minutes
C) Ultraviolet (UV) burn and lavage eye with balanced saline solution for 30 minutes
D) Acid burn and lavage eye with balanced saline solution for 30 minutes

B) Alkali burn and lavage eye with balanced saline solution for 30 minutes

A newborn presenting with symptoms of ophthalmia neonatorum 3 days after birth is MOST likely infected with which of the following organisms?

A) Haemophilus influenza
B) Herpes Simplex Virus
C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D) Streptococcus pneumonia
E) Chlamydia trachomatis
F) Staphylococcus aureus

C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae

A patient walks into your office with a mild corneal abrasion, what is the correct healing sequence?

A) Hemidesmosome formation between basal cells > basal cells at the wound margin flatten and spread > mitosis of cells surrounding wound area > attachment of cells via fibronectin and laminin
B) Basal cells at the wound margin flatten and spread > attachment of cells via fibronectin and laminin > mitosis of cells surrounding wound area > hemisdesmosome formation between basal cells
C) Basal cells at the wound margin flatten and spread > mitosis of cells surrounding wound area > attachment of cells via fibronectin and laminin > hemidesmosome formation between basal cells
D) Mitosis of cells surrounding wound area > attachment of cells via fibrinectin and laminin > hemidesmosome formation between basal cells > basal cells at the wound margin flatten and spread

C) Basal cells at the wound margin flatten and spread > mitosis of cells surrounding wound area > attachment of cells via fibronectin and laminin > hemidesmosome formation between basal cells

All else being equal, cells found in which layer of the cornea consume the GREATEST amount of oxygen?

A) Endothelium
B) Bowman's membrane
C) Stroma
D) Epithelium

A) Endothelium

Axenfeld loops are smooth, dome-shaped, greyish-appearing nodules located under the bulbar conjunctiva that are the result of intrascleral looping of which of the following nerves?

A) Short posterior ciliary nerves
B) Long posterior ciliary nerves
C) Long anterior ciliary nerves
D) Short anterior ciliary nerves

B) Long posterior ciliary nerves

Chrysiasis of the cornea occurs secondary to administration of medication used to treat which of the following conditions?

A) Hypertension
B) Diabetes
C) Rheumatoid Arthritis
D) Cancer
E) Cardiac Arrhythmias

C) Rheumatoid arthritis

During periods of severe hypoxia, the cornea will revert to anaerobic metabolism and break down glycogen. What layer of the cornea is capable of storing glycogen for use during times of hypoxia?

A) Descemet's membrane
B) Endothelial layer
C) Stroma
D) Epithelial layer

D) Epithelial layer

A back surface toric (spherical front surface) gas-permeable (GP) contact lens is ordered with base curve radii of 7.85 mm (43.00 D) and 8.44 mm (40.00 D). When verifying this lens with a lensometer you would expect to find approximately how many diopters of "induced cylinder"?

A) 4.50 D
B) 3.00 D
C) 2.00 D
D) 1.50 D

A) 4.50 D

An aphakic patient is seen at your office and wishes to be fit with contact lenses. What is an important contact lens parameter that MUST be considered in this patient's care?

A) Contact lens material
B) Contact lens solution
C) Ultraviolet (UV) inhibitor
D) Edge Thickness

C) Ultraviolet (UV) inhibitor

Hypoxia associated with hydrophilic (soft) contact lens wear can result in which of the following?

A) Blepharitis
B) Corneal decomposition
C) 3/9 staining, scarring and pseudoptyergium
D) Corneal swelling

D) Corneal swelling

Dissection of the eye reveals that the ciliary body is actually triangular in shape. The apex of this triangle points in which direction and is continuous with which structure?

A) Points posteriorly; continuous with choroid
B) Points posteriorly; continuous with scleral spur
C) Points anteriorly; continuous with ora serata
D) Points anteriorly; continuous with iris

A) Points posteriorly; continuous with choroid

Free radicals can cause severe damage to tissue. Which of the following electrolytes can function as an antioxidant in the aqueous?

A) Ascorbate
B) Sodium ions
C) IgG
D) Albumin
E) Chloride ions

A) Ascorbate

Iris colhbomas form due to incomplete closure of the choroidal fissure. This usually results in a keyhole-shaped defect in which region of the iris?

A) Superotemporal
B) Superonasal
C) Inferotemporal
D) Inferonasal

D) Inferonasal

A 22-year old male presents in your office for his annual exam. Biomicroscopy reveals bilateral Krukenberg spindles and iris transillumination defects. Given the above findings, what is the correct diagnosis of the patient?

A) Pigmentary dispersion syndrome
B) Salzmann's nodular degeneration
C) Pseudoexfoliation
D) Posner-Schlossman syndrome

A) Pigmentary dispersion syndrome

According to the Van Herick technique of angle estimation, which angle grade is considered MOST narrow and potentially capable of closure?

A) Grade 1
B) Grade 2
C) Grade 3
D) Grade 4

A) Grade 1

At what time period of the day would the aqueous humor production be the least?

A) Midnight to 6 AM
B) 8 AM to noon
C) Afternoon

A) Midnight to 6 AM

Goldmann applanation tonometry is calibrated for a central corneal thickness of roughly 520 micrometers. How will a cornea measuring 600 micrometers thick affect the intraocular pressure (IOP) measurements, and how should the IOP reading be compensated?

A) IOP will be falsely elevated; the IOP should be adjusted up
B) IOP will be falsely elevated; the measures IOP should be adjusted down
C) IOP will be falsely low; the measured IOP should be adjusted up
D) IOP will be falsely low; the measured IOP should be adjusted down

B) IOP will be falsely elevated; the measures IOP should be adjusted down

How is the temporal modulation transfer function expected to change in a person with early glaucoma not yet manifesting any defects on visual field testing?

A) Decreased sensitivity to moderate frequencies only
B) Decreased sensitivity to low temporal frequencies only
C) Decreased sensitivity to moderate and high temporal frequencies
D) Decreased sensitivity to low and moderate frequencies

C) Decreased sensitivity to moderate and high temporal frequencies

Instillation of too much fluorescein when attempting Goldmann applanation tonometry will result in what type of erroneous result?

A) A corneal abrasion
B) A measured intraocular pressure that is lower than the true intraocular pressure
C) Mires that are misaligned superiorly
D) A measured intraocular pressure that is higher than the true intraocular pressure
E) Mires that are misaligned inferiorly

D) A measured intraocular pressure that is higher than the true intraocular pressure

Long-term use of corticosteroids can lead to the formation of which of the following types of cataract?

A) Posterior subcapsular
B) Cortical
C) Anterior subcapsular
D) Nuclear sclerotic

A) Posterior subcapsular

Berger's space is created by an interval between which two structures?

A) The posterior face of the lens and the anterior vitreous
B) The equator of the lens and the ciliary body
C) The anterior face of the lens and the posterior surface of the iris
D) The posterior surface of the cornea and the anterior face of the iris

A) The posterior face of the lens and the anterior vitreous

Patients with a history of homocystinuria are MOST likely to experience crystalline lens subluxation in which of the following directions?

A) Down and outward
B) Down and inward
C) Up and outward
D) Up and inward

B) Down and inward

Purkinje images are caused by reflections of objects on the cornea and lens. Which of the four images moves forward with accommodation?

A) I
B) III
C) II
D) IV

B) III

The ligaments that suspend the lens (zonules) are embryonically derived from what structure?

A) The tertiary vitreous
B) The primary vitreous
C) The lens epithelium
D) The lens capsule

A) The tertiary vitreous

A 42-year old patient reports that her right eye has been watery and she has mild pain, redness, and swelling in the lower medial canthal region. You suspect dacryocystitis as the cause of her symptoms. Which of the following procedures is NOT appropriate when further evaluating this possible diagnosis?

A) Digital palpation of the medial cantonal area
B) Exophthalmometry
C) Gram stain and blood agar cultures of discharge
D) Extraocular muscle motility
E) Dilation and irrigation of the lacrimal system

E) Dilation and irrigation of the lacrimal system

A common cause of epiphora in infants is caused by a small membrane that covers over which of the following structures?

A) The lacrimal gland
B) The canaliculus
C) The valve of Hasner
D) The puncta

C) The valve of Hasner

An 81-year old female reports that her eye has been watering more frequently over the past month; you decide to administer the primary Jones dye test (Jones I). After 5 minutes, the application of a cotton-tipped applicator to the inferior turbinate reveals the presence of dye in the area. Taking this into consideration, what is the MOST likely cause of the patient's epiphora complaint?

A) Dysfunction of the valve of Hasner
B) Hypersecretion of tears
C) Punctal stenosis
D) Partial nasolacrimal duct obstruction
E) Complete nasolacrimal duct obstruction

B) Hypersecretion of tears

Chronic blepharitis, if left untreated, can cause which of the following structural changes to the anterior ocular segment?

A) Tristichiasis
B) Madarosis
C) Hypertelorism
D) Distichiasis

B) Madarosis

Dacryoadenitis refers to an inflammation or infection of which of the following ocular structures?

A) The puncta
B) The lacrimal gland
C) The nasolacrimal sac
D) The lacrimal sac

B) The lacrimal gland

In addition to the meibomian glands which other accessory glands secrete oil?

A) Wolfrig and Krause
B) Zeiss and Wolfring
C) Zeiss and Moll
D) Moll and Krause

C) Zeis and Moll

Many skin anomalies may mimic malignant lesions. Which of the following skin conditions has the HIGHEST risk of becoming malignant?

A) Papilloma
B) Cutaneous horn
C) Actinic keratosis
D) Seborrhoeic keratosis

C) Actinic keratosis

Numerous reports have suggested that increased tear film osmolarity is a key consequence in dry eye. Although osmolarity is not easily measured in the clinical setting, tear osmolarity increases in most dry eye sub-types due to which of the following processes?

A) Loss of tear stability induces an increased evaporation rate, leading to increased osmolarity
B) The lipid layer is altered in most dry states, leading to ion pairing
C) Reactive oxygen species are increased in the tears of most dry eye subtypes; this increases osmolarity
D) Patients with dry eye tend to blink less than normals, leading to increased evaporation
E) Decreased capillary exchange leads to ionic bonding
F) In aqueous tear deficiency, the lacrimal gland produces more ionic species

A) Loss of tear stability induces an increased evaporation rate, leading to increased osmolarity

Oral acyclovir is most effective for patients presenting with eyelid findings associated with herpes zoster if administered within which of the following periods following onset of disease?

A) 24 hours
B) 72 hours
C) 4-5 days
D) 10-12 hours
E) 7-10 days

B) 72 hours

A positive catalase test indicates that a bacteria is capable of breaking down which of the following?

A) Glucose
B) Pyruvate
C) Hydrogen peroxide
D) Carbon dioxide

C) Hydrogen peroxide

The visual acuity of a 77 year-old female patient with age-related macular degeneration is 2/16 in the right eye on the ETDRS chart. Why is this chart useful in monitoring the response to treatment with anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)?

A) The Snellen construction of the chart enables the examiner to quickly note that a two-line increment represents a factor of a two time increase in the size of the letters
B) Each line is 1.0 log units larger than the previous line
C) Each line has 5 Sloan letters throughout the chart with equal spacing and is 1.26 times larger than the line below it; each line is .1 log units larger than the line below it when moving up the chart
D) A three-line decrease represents a factor of two time decrease in the size of the letters

C) Each line has 5 Sloan letters throughout the chart with equal spacing and is 1.26 times larger than the line below it; each line is .1 log units larger than the line below it when moving up the chart

One of your tech-savvy low vision patients wishes to use a CCTV for reading. The CCTV operates on what principle of magnification?

A) Relative distance magnification
B) Relative size magnification
C) Equivalent magnification
D) Rated magnification

B) Relative size magnification

Illumination is one of the most important considerations to discuss in the case disposition for a visually impaired patient. A patient with chronic open angle glaucoma moves a 60 watt bulb on a flexible mounted arm from three feet to one foot from the page. The illumination on the page will appear to have been increased by how much?

A) Decreased by 1/9 of the original brightness
B) Increased by 9 times the original brightness
C) Increased by 3 times the original brightness
D) Should be the same brightness
E) Decreased by 1/3 of the original brightness

B) Increased by 9 times the original brightnesss

A patient is using a standard magnifier of +16D with a +2.00 add. If the distance separating the two lenses is 25cm, what is the equivalent power of this combination?

A) 10 D
B) 18 D
C) 26 D
D) 22 D

A) 10 D

A 2.5x Galilean telescope has a -25D ocular lens. When focused for infinity, what is the length of the telescope?

A) 10 cm
B) 6 cm
C) 14 cm
D) 4 cm
E) 5 cm

B) 6 cm

The lymphatic system serves many important roles in the human body. The lateral portion of the eyelid lymphatics drain into which of the following structures?

A) The pre-auricular lymph node
B) The puncta
C) The conjunctiva
D) The submandibular lymph node

A) The pre-auricular lymph node

Tear volume in a normal, healthy, young adult measures approximately between which of the following values?

A) 13.0-16.0 microliters
B) 17.0-20.0 microliters
C) 2.0-5.0 microliters
D) 6.0-8.0 microliters
E) 9.0-12.0 microliters

D) 6.0-8.0 microliters

Ptosis can be caused by dysfunction or damage to which of the following muscles?

A) Pars ciliaris (Riolan's muscle)
B) Superior tarsal muscle (muscle of Muller)
C) Inferior rectus
D) Muscle of Horner

B) Superior tarsal muscle (muscle of Muller)

An elderly patient presents in your office with decreased visual acuity. He remarks that he can read better without his glasses and his refraction denotes a large myopic shift. Dilated fundus exam is unremarkable. Which of the following slit lamp findings would MOST likely explain the above findings?

A) Bilateral 3+ nuclear sclerosis of the lens
B) Bilateral corneal arcus
C) Bilateral crocodile shagreen
D) Bilateral limbal girdle of Vogt

A) Bilateral 3+ nuclear sclerosis of the lens

A Galilean telescope has an ocular lens with a power of -32.00 D and an objective lens with a power of +8.00 D. What is the magnification provided by the telescope?

A) 0.25x
B) 4x
C) 8x
D) 256x

B) 4x

A 6-foot tall man wishes to buy a plane mirror in which he can visualize his whole length at the same time. How tall must the mirror measure in order for the above to occur?

A) 3 feet tall
B) 5.2 feet tall
C) 2.3 feet tall
D) 4.5 feet tall
E) 6 feet tall

A) 3 feet tall

A convex mirror in water (n=1.33) has a radius of curvature of 12cm. What is the dioptric power of the mirror?

A) -22.17 D
B) +22.17 D
C) +8.33 D
D) -11.08 D

A) -22.17 D

A patient is seen at your office complaining that her right eye is physiologically higher than her left eye. She would like to know if glasses would help improve the cosmesis of her predicament. You know that prism will shift the image of an object. How would you orient a prism to help her appearance?

A) Prescribe base out prism over the left eye
B) Prescribe base up prism over the right eye
C) Prescribe base in prism over the left eye
D) Prescribe base down prism over the left eye

B) Prescribe base up prism over the right eye

A patient brings you an old pair of glasses and asks you how much prism is in the lenses. With the lensometer, you measure 7 prism diopters base up and 4 base out in the right eye and 4 prism diopters base up and 5 base out in the left eye. What is the total amount of prism in the glasses?

A) 11 prism diopters base up total and 1 base out
B) 3 prism diopters base up in the right eye and 1 base out
C) 11 prism diopters base up total and 9 base out
D) 3 prism diopters base up in the right eye and 9 base out

D) 3 prism diopters base up in the right eye and 9 base out

A patient returns to your office reporting that her eyes feel strange when she reads 6mm below the optical centers of her new glasses. The prescription in her right eye is -4.00 DS and -7.00 DS in her left eye. How much vertical prism is induced when she reads?

A) 2.4 prism diopters base down
B) 4.2 prism diopters base down
C) 6.6 prism diopters base down
D) 1.8 prism diopters base down

D) 1.8 prism diopters base down

A chiasmal lesion or mass, such as a pituitary tumor, generally causes what type of visual field defect?

A) Right homonymous hemianopsia
B) Left homonymous hemianopsia
C) Bitemporal hemianopsia
D) Binasal hemianopsia

C) Bitemporal hemianopsia

A cranial nerve VI palsy will cause what type of deviation?

A) Exodeviation worse with distance viewing
B) Exodeviation worse with near viewing
C) Esodeviation worse with distance viewing
D) Esodeviation worse with near viewing

C) Esodeviation worse with distance viewing

A healthy retinal nerve fiber layer is thickest at which portion of the optic nerve head?

A) Nasally
B) Superiorly
C) Inferiorly
D) Temporally

C) Inferiorly

A patient is seen at your office reporting constant diplopia. The patient notes that the diplopia is still present when you cover her right eye. Based upon this information, what is the MOST likely etiology of her diplopia?

A) Lateral rectus palsy
B) Superior oblique palsy
C) Uncorrected refractive error
D) Aneurysm

C) Uncorrected refractive error

A cortical hypercolumn is comprised of which of the following?

A) Ocular dominance columns for both eyes and orientation columns for one specific orientation only
B) An ocular dominance column for one eye only and orientation columns for one specific orientation only
C) A complete set of ocular dominance columns for one eye only and a complete set of orientation columns
D) An ocular dominance column for one eye only and a complete set of orientation columns
E) Ocular dominance columns for both eyes and a complete set of orientation columns

E) Ocular dominance columns for both eyes and a complete set of orientation columns

A patient who has a high spatial frequency cut-off of 40 cycles per degree will have what predicted Snellen acuity?

A) 20/30
B) 20/40
C) 20/20
D) 20/15

D) 20/15

A person can just barely detect the difference between two weights: one weighs 12 pounds and the other weighs 10 pounds. What is the just noticeable difference for a weight of 70 pounds?

A) 14 pounds
B) 2 pounds
C) 8 pounds
D) 20 pounds
E) 56 pounds

A) 14 pounds

A person who is missing the photopigment chlorolabe is categorized as which of the following?

A) A deuteranope
B) A protanomalous trichromat
C) A tritanope
D) A deuteranope
E) A deuteranomalous trichromat

A) A deuteranope

A 24-year old female patient presents at your office complaining of side effects that began when she started using Patanol to treat her ocular allergies. She reports complete compliance with her eye drop administration. Which of the following symptoms is MOST likely associated with olopatadine (Patanol) use?

A) Headache
B) Tachycardia
C) Visual Hallucinations
D) Gasterointestinal discomfort
E) Depression

A) Headache

A 31-year old male patient presents to your office for a photorefractive keratectomy (PRK) pre-operative examination. As you review his required ocular medication schedule, which of the following prescribed drops must you remember to tell him to "shake well" before installation?

A) Acular
B) Pred Forte
C) Zymaxid
D) FreshKote

B) Pred Forte

A 32-year old female is seen at your office complaining of a recent onset of blurred vision, only at a distance. A thorough case history reveals that she recently began taking new medication which you correctly assume has induced myopia. Which of the following medications is MOST likely to be the culprit?

A) Tylenol (acetaminophen)
B) Tums (calcium carbonate)
C) Omega III fish oil capsules
D) Accutane (isotretinoin)

D) Accutane (isotretinoin)

A chin fissure is a dominant trait. If a father who is homozygous-dominant for this trait and a mother who is homozygous-recessive for this trait mate, what are the chances that their first child will have a chin fissure?

A) 100%
B) 25%
C) 75%
D) 50%
E) 0%

A) 100%

A constant ringing of the ears is known as which of the following terms?

A) Sinusitis
B) Otitis media
C) Malleus
D) Tinnitus

D) Tinnitus

During gestation, when does the secondary vitreous begin to develop?

A) The 9th week of gestation
B) The 30th week of gestation
C) The 20th week of gestation
D) The 1st week of gestation

A) The 9th week of gestation

A contracting muscle that develops tension but does not shorten displays which type of muscle tension?

A) Isovolume
B) Isovelocity
C) Isometric
D) Isotonic

C) Isometric

A central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO) causes tremendous damage to the retina. How will the electrocardiogram (ERG) of a person who has suffered a CRAO be affected?

A) Both the a-wave and the b-wave
B) The a-wave will disappear while the b-wave will remain
C) Both the a-wave and the b-wave will remain
D) The a-wave will remain while the b-wave will disappear

D) The a-wave will remain while the b-wave will disappear

Drusen typically deposit between which layers of the retina?

A) The inner and outer plexiform layers
B) The ganglion cell layer and the nerve fiber layer
C) The retinal pigment epithelium and Bruch's membrane
D) The inner and outer nuclear layers

C) The retinal pigment epithelium and Bruch's membrane

Bipolar cells receive information from photoreceptors. Which type of neurotransmitter do bipolar cells respond to?

A) Dopamine
B) Glutamate
C) Serotonin
D) Glycine

B) Glutamate

According to the Keith-Wagener-Barker method of classification, hypersensitive retinopathy is categorized as stage four when which ocular sign is present?

A) Flame hemorrhages
B) Retinal edema
C) Swelling of the optic disc
D) Hard exudates in a star configuration

C) Swelling of the optic disc

A patient is concerned with an acute reduction in the acuity in the right eye. You currently diagnose central serous retinopathy, and confirm your diagnosis with an optical coherence tomography (OCT). What is the standard treatment protocol?

A) Monitor monthly for resolution
B) Refer for cryotherapy of the retina
C) Refer for laser treatment of the retina
D) Refer for intravitreal steroid injection
E) Treat the patient with prism as they are likely to develop diplopia

A) Monitor monthly for resolution

Midget ganglion cells receive information pre-synaptically from which cells?

A) Flat bipolar cells
B) Horizontal bipolar cells
C) Red bipolar cells
D) Midget bipolar cells

D) Midget bipolar cells

What is the MOST common type of oculomotor deviation?

A) Exophoria
B) Hypophoria
C) Hyperphoria
D) Esophoria

A) Exophoria

While examining a patient with diplopia, you ask him to look downward and toward his nose. He is able to move the eye toward his nose (medially) but not down. Based on the isolated agonist model of the eye movement by extra ocular muscles, which nerve and muscle are not functioning appropriately?

A) Abducens nerve, inferior oblique
B) Trochlear nerve, inferior oblique
C) Trochlear nerve, superior oblique
D) Oculomotor nerve, superior rectus
E) Abducens nerve, lateral rectus

C) Trochlear nerve, superior oblique

Which of the following muscle pairings and actions follow Sherrington's law of reciprocal innervation?

A) Looking to the right causes contraction of the right medial rectus and inhibition of the right lateral rectus
B) Looking to the right causes contraction of the right lateral rectus and inhibition of the right medial rectus
C) Looking to the right causes contraction of the right lateral rectus and inhibition of the left medial rectus
D) Looking to the right causes contraction of the right medial rectus and contraction of the left medial rectus

B) Looking to the right causes contraction of the right lateral rectus and inhibition of the right medial rectus

Which extraocular rectus muscle has its insertion site CLOSEST to the limbus?

A) The lateral rectus
B) The inferior rectus
C) The medial rectus
D) The superior rectus

C) The medial rectus

When performing a unilateral cover test on your patient, you note the following: upon covering the right eye, the left eye moves in 1/10 times. Upon covering the left eye, the right eye moves in 4/10 times. The alternating cover test measures 25 prism diopters base-in. What is your diagnosis based on these findings?

A) 25 prism diopter intermittent alternating esotropia; right eye preferred
B) 25 prism diopter intermittent alternating exotropia; left eye preferred
C) 25 prism diopter intermittent alternating exotropia; right eye preferred
D) 25 prism diopter intermittent alternating esotropia; left eye preferred

B) 25 prism diopter intermittent alternating exotropia; left eye preferred

Which of the following conditions would be categorized as causing amblyopia due to deprivation?

A) A three-year with a constant right 30 prism diopter esotropia
B) A child born with a monocular 2mm ptosis
C) A child born with a large congenital cataract in one eye only
D) A five-year old with an uncorrected prescription of OD: +7.00 D 20/400 OS: +0.50 D 20/20

C) A child born with a large congenital cataract in one eye

Which of the following methods can be used to test for the presence of eccentric fixation?

A) The Hirschberg test
B) Visuoscopy
C) The Bruckner test
D) Binocular versions

B) Visuoscopy

Which of the following types of refractive error would have the greatest tendency to lead to amblyopia?

A) A four-year old girl with an uncorrected refractive error of OD: +1.00-1.50x180 and OS: +1.50-1.25x180
B) A four-year old boy with an uncorrected refractive error of OD: +6.00 DS and OS: +1.50 DS
C) A five-year old girl with an uncorrected refractive error of OD: -3.25 DS and OS: -0.75 DS
D) A three-year old boy with an uncorrected refractive error of OD: +1.50 DS and OS: -2.00 DS

B) A four-year old boy with an uncorrected refractive error of OD: +6.00 DS and OS: +1.50 DS

What is the equivalent of a Reduced Snellen 20/50 optotype in metric notation (assuming a working distance of 40cm)?

A) 2M
B) 0.67M
C) 1M
D) 0.5M

C) 1M

What is the name of the pigmented line that represents the leading edge of a pterygium?

A) Fleischer's ring
B) Stocker's line
C) Kruckenberg's line
D) Hudson-Stahli line
E) Coat's white ring
F) Ferry's line

B) Stocker's line

Which of the following is a precursor to steroid hormones such as testosterone?

A) Sphingolipids
B) Phospholipids
C) Triglycerides
D) Cholesterol

D) Cholesterol

What is the net overall moles of ATP produced by the electron transport chain (i.e. not including glycolysis)?

A) 2 moles of ATP
B) 30 moles of ATP
C) 38 moles of ATP
D) 34 moles of ATP
E) 6 moles of ATP

D) 34 moles of ATP

While performing the astigmatic clock dial, your patient reports that the clearest/blackest line is the 2-8 line while the 5-11 line is the least clear. What would be the corresponding axis of astigmatism?

A) 30 degrees
B) 180 degrees
C) 60 degrees
D) 150 degrees

C) 60 degrees

Which type of light scattering is responsible for the reddish-orange colors that are often observed during sunsets?

A) Mie scattering
B) Brillouin scattering
C) Raman scattering
D) Tyndall scattering
E) Rayleigh scattering

E) Rayleigh scattering

Which of the following BEST describes the definition of irregular astigmatism?

A) The axis of astigmatism is located along the 90 degree meridian
B) The axis of astigmatism is located along an oblique axis
C) The principle meridians of the cornea are located 90 degrees apart
D) The principal meridians of the cornea are not perpendicular to each other

D) The principal meridians of the cornea are not perpendicular to each other

What separation distance will make the combination of a +3.00 and a +10.00 thin lens afocal?

A) 17 cm
B) 2.3 cm
C) 0.43 cm
D) 43 cm
E) 23 cm
F) 1.7 cm

D) 43 cm

What is the minimum thickness necessary for an antireflective coating (n=1.9) to be useful against incident light of 530 nm wavelength?

A) 58.3 nm
B) 139.5 nm
C) 278.9 nm
D) 132.5 nm
E) 69.7 nm

E) 69.7 nm

What is the Interval of Sturm for a spherocylindrical lens with a power of +6.00-2.00x090?

A) 20 cm
B) 41.7 cm
C) 8.3 cm
D) 25 cm
E) 16.7 cm

C) 8.3 cm

What is the name of the surgical procedure in which thermal laser burns are placed in the mid-periphery of the cornea in an attempt to steepen the corneal curvature?

A) Photorefractive keratectomy
B) Laser-assisted in-situ keratomileusis
C) Radial keratotomy
D) Conductive keratoplasty
E) Limbal relaxation incisions

D) Conductive keratoplasty

Which of the following ocular signs is virtually pathognomonic for trachoma caused by chlamydia?

A) Inferior tarsal papillae
B) Tranta's dots
C) Lymphadenopathy
D) Superior tarsal follicles

D) Superior tarsal follicles