EMT Finals Prep

1. Which of the following descriptions most accurately portrays emergency medical services (EMS)?

A) A vast network of advanced life support (ALS) providers who provide definitive emergency care in the prehospital setting

B) A team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured

 C) A system composed exclusively of emergency medical responders (EMRs) and emergency medical technicians (EMTs) who are responsible for providing care to sick and injured patients

D) A team of paramedics and emergency physicians who are responsible for providing emergency care to critically injured patients

B

2. The standards for prehospital emergency care and the individuals who provide it are typically regulated by the:

A) state office of EMS. 

B) regional trauma center.

C) American Heart Association.

D) National Registry of EMTs.

A

3. As an EMT, you may be authorized to administer aspirin to a patient with chest pain based on:

A) the patient’s condition.

B) medical director approval.

C) an order from a paramedic.

D) the transport time to the hospital.

B

4. Cardiac monitoring, pharmacologic interventions, and other advanced treatment skills are functions of the:

A) EMT.

B) paramedic. 

C) AEMT.

D) EMR.

B

5. Which of the following statements regarding the NREMT is correct?

A) The NREMT is a governmental agency that certifies EMTs.

B) The NREMT regulates EMS training standards.

C) The NREMT is the exclusive certifying body for EMTs.

D) The NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing.

D

6. According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT should be able to:

A) assist a patient with certain prescribed medications.

B) insert a peripheral IV line and infuse fluids.

C) administer epinephrine via the subcutaneous route.

D) interpret a basic (ECG) rhythm and treat accordingly.

A

7. Which of the following skills or interventions is included at every level of prehospital emergency training?

A) Oral glucose for hypoglycemia

B) Automated external defibrillation 

C) Intranasal medication administration

D) Use of a manually triggered ventilator

B

8. Which type of medical direction do standing orders and protocols describe?

A) Radio

B) Online

C) Off-line

D) Direct

C

9. The continuous quality improvement (CQI) process is designed to:

A) administer punitive actions to EMTs who do not follow local protocols.

B) identify areas needing improvement and provide remedial training if needed.

C) ensure that all EMTs maintain licensure through the state EMS office.

D) focus specifically on the quality of emergency care provided to the patient.

B

10. Which of the following errors is an example of a knowledge-based failure?

A) An EMT gives the correct drug to a patient, although his protocols clearly state that he is not authorized to do so.

B) Due to an improperly applied cervical collar, a patient’s spinal injury is aggravated and he is permanently disabled.

C) A patient is given nitroglycerin by an EMT who did not obtain proper authorization from medical control first.

D) An EMT administers the wrong drug to a patient because she did not know the pertinent information about the drug.

D

11. Obtaining continuing medical education is the responsibility of the:

A) individual EMT.

B) State Bureau of EMS.

C) EMS training officer.

D) EMS medical director.

A

12. The determination that prompt surgical care in the hospital is more important than performing time-consuming procedures in the field on a major trauma patient is based mostly on:

A) EMS research.

B) local protocols.

C) the lead EMT’s decision.

D) regional trauma guidelines.

A

13. If a defibrillator manufacturer claims that its device terminates ventricular fibrillation on the first shock 95% of the time, you should:

A) avoid purchasing the device because this claim is unrealistic.

B) recognize that this does not mean the device will save more lives.

C) purchase the device based solely on the manufacturer’s claim.

D) determine which device the American Heart Association recommends

B

14. The EMT certification exam is designed to:

A) rank EMTs based on performance on the certification exam.

B) identify those EMTs who are prepared for advanced levels of training.

C) provide EMTs with the best possible wage once certification is achieved.

D) ensure that EMTs are competent and have the same level of knowledge and skills.

D

15. Which of the following scenarios involves the administration of ALS?

A) A 48-year-old patient whose airway is secured with a supraglottic device

B) A 53-year-old patient who is assisted with his prescribed nitroglycerin

C) A 61-year-old patient who is receiving humidified supplemental oxygen

D) A 64-year-old patient who is given aspirin for suspected cardiac chest pain

A

16. Continuing education in EMS serves to:

A) confirm research and statistical findings in prehospital care.

B) maintain, update, and expand the EMT’s knowledge and skills. 

C) enforce mandatory attendance at agency-specific training.

D) provide an ongoing review and audit of the EMS system.

B

17. Which of the following is an example of a primary prevention strategy?

A) Community awareness programs that emphasize the dangers of drinking and driving

B) The construction of a guardrail on a dangerous curve following a fatal motor vehicle crash

C) Protecting a patient’s spine from further injury after a fall from a significant height

D) Teaching a group of new parents how to perform one- and two-rescuer infant CPR

A

18. EMS as we know it today had its origins in 1966 with the publication of:

A) the Emergency Medical Services Act.

B) the Department of Transportation’s White Paper: Death and Dying.

C) Emergency Care and Transportation of the Sick and Injured.

D) Accidental Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society.

D

19. Which of the following criteria is required to become licensed and employed as an EMT?

A) Demonstration of the ability to lift and carry at least 200 pounds

B) Proof of immunization against certain communicable diseases

C) A minimum of 60 college credit hours that focus on health care

D) Successful completion of a recognized bystander CPR course

B

20. An appropriate demonstration of professionalism when your patient is frightened, demanding, or unpleasant is to:

A) continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful.

B) demand that the patient remain quiet and cooperative during transport.

C) ignore the patient’s feelings and focus on his or her medical complaint.

D) reassure the patient that everything will be all right, even if it will not be.

A

1. Vectorborne transmission of an infectious organism occurs via:

A) animals or insects.

B) smoke or dust.

C) direct contact.

D) inanimate objects.

A

2. The simplest, yet most effective method of preventing the spread of an infectious disease is to:

A) undergo an annual physical examination.

B) ensure that your immunizations are up-to-date.

C) wash your hands in between patient contacts.

D) undergo annual testing for tuberculosis and hepatitis.

C

3. Prescription glasses do not provide adequate eye protection because they:

A) have large, rounded lenses.

B) are not secured with a strap.

C) offer little or no side protection.

D) do not have shatterproof lenses.

C

4. When decontaminating the back of your ambulance after a call, you should:

A) allow surfaces to air dry unless otherwise indicated in the product directions.

B) use a bleach and water solution at a 1:2 dilution ratio to thoroughly wipe all surfaces.

C) clean all surfaces and patient contact areas with a mixture of alcohol and water.

D) spray the contaminated areas and then immediately wipe them dry with a towel.

A

5. Which of the following is the most significant factor in determining whether a person will become ill from certain germs?

A) Age

B) Race

C) Gender

D) Immunity

D

6. Which of the following infectious diseases confers no protection from reinfection after exposure?

A) Rubella

B) Syphilis

C) Chickenpox

B

7. A positive TB skin test indicates that:

A) you have never been exposed to TB.

B) you have been exposed to TB.

C) you are actively infected with TB.

D) the TB disease is currently dormant but might later become active.

B

8. A critical incident stress debriefing should be conducted no longer than ________ hours following the incident.

A) 6

B) 12

C) 24

D) 72

D

9. Quid pro quo, a type of sexual harassment, occurs when the harasser:

A) requests sexual favors in exchange for something else. 

B) touches another person without his or her consent.

C) stares at certain parts of another person’s anatomy.

D) makes rude remarks about a person’s body parts.

A

10. The most serious consequence of drug or alcohol abuse among EMS personnel is:

A) punitive action and the loss of a job.

B) low morale and frequently missed shifts.

C) tension among coworkers and supervisors.

D) substandard or inappropriate patient care.

D

11. The capacity of an individual to cope with and recover from stress is called:

A) distress.

B) eustress.

C) wellness.

D) resilience.

D

12. The most important consideration at the scene of a hazardous materials incident is:

A) identifying the hazardous material.

B) calling the hazardous materials team.

C) evacuating the bystanders.

D) ensuring your personal safety.

D

13. Hazards that are associated with a structural fire include all of the following, except:

A) smoke and toxic gases.

B) carbon dioxide deficiency. 

C) high ambient temperatures.

D) risk of building collapse.

B

14. The most effective way to preserve your own body heat when functioning in cold, wet weather is to:

A) wear a heavy, thick jacket or coat.

B) avoid outer clothing with zippers.

C) wear at least three layers of clothing.

D) wear socks made of heavy-duty cotton.

C

15. The spread of HIV and hepatitis in the healthcare setting can usually be traced to:

A) careless handling of sharps.

B) lack of proper immunizations.

C) excessive blood splashing or splattering.

D) noncompliance with standard precautions.

A

16. Vaccination against the hepatitis A virus is unnecessary if you:

A) are older than 35 years of age.

B) have a weak immune system.

C) have been infected with hepatitis A in the past. 

D) received a hepatitis B vaccination.

C

17. General adaptation syndrome is characterized by which of the following phases?

A) Alarm response, reaction and resistance, and recovery

B) Delayed reaction, alarm response, and physical recovery

C) Reaction and resistance, euphoria, and physical exhaustion

D) Immediate reaction, psychological exhaustion, and recovery

A

18. You have been working at the scene of a major building collapse for eight hours. Many injured people are still being removed, and everyone is becoming frustrated and losing focus. This situation is most effectively managed by:

A) providing large amounts of caffeine to the rescue workers.

B) requesting a CISM team to provide on-scene peer support.

C) conducting a critical incident stress debriefing the next day.

D) allowing each worker to sleep in 15- to 30-minute increments.

B

19. What should you do before attempting to access a patient trapped in a vehicle?

A) Check for other patients.

B) Ensure the vehicle is stable.

C) Request another ambulance.

D) Contact medical control.

B

20. Characteristics of eustress following dispatch to a high-speed motor vehicle collision may include:

A) the inability to remain focused, because the task at hand is demanding.

B) short term loss of energy due to the high physical demands of the job.

C) increased self-image from performing well under a challenging situation.

D) long-term feelings of being overwhelmed by the nature of the call.

C

1. Which of the following general statements regarding consent is correct?

A) A patient can consent to transport but can legally refuse treatment.

B) Patients who are intoxicated are generally allowed to refuse treatment.

C) Expressed consent is valid only if given in writing by a family member.

D) All patients older than 18 years can legally refuse treatment or transport.

A

2. Which of the following types of consent allows treatment of a patient who is unconscious or mentally incapacitated?

A) Actual

B) Implied

C) Informed

D) Expressed

B

3. In many states, a minor may be treated as an adult for the purpose of consenting to or refusing medical treatment if the minor:

A) possesses a valid driver’s license.

B) is mentally competent and able to refuse.

C) has a poor relationship with his or her parents.

D) is self-supporting and lives by him- or herself.

D

4. Which aspect of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) most affects EMS personnel?

A) Controlling insurance costs

B) Protecting patient privacy

C) Preventing insurance fraud

D) Ensuring access to insurance

B

5. For a do not resuscitate (DNR) order to be valid, it must:

A) be dated within the previous 24 months.

B) clearly state the patient’s medical problem.

C) be updated a minimum of every 6 months.

D) be signed by the local justice of the peace.

B

6. You arrive at the scene of an apparent death. When evaluating the patient, which of the following is a definitive sign of death?

A) Absence of a pulse

B) Profound cyanosis

C) Dependent lividity

D) Absent breath sounds

C

7. Putrefaction is defined as:

A) decomposition of the body’s tissues.

B) profound cyanosis to the trunk and face.

C) blood settling to the lowest point of the body.

D) separation of the torso from the rest of the body.

A

8. The EMT’s scope of practice within his or her local response area is defined by the:

A) medical director.

B) state EMS office.

C) EMS supervisor.

D) local health district.

A

9. As an EMT, the performance of your duties will be compared to that of:

A) another EMT 

B) the general public.

C) the medical director.

D) a paramedic supervisor.

A

10. Which of the following scenarios most accurately depicts abandonment?

A) A paramedic transfers patient care to an EMT.

B) An AEMT transfers patient care to a paramedic.

C) A physician assumes patient care from an EMT.

D) An EMT gives a verbal report to an emergency room nurse.

A

11. Acting in such a way as to make another person fear immediate bodily harm is called:

A) libel.

B) assault.

C) battery.

D) negligence.

B

12. Which of the following statements regarding Good Samaritan laws is correct?

A) Such laws provide the EMT with absolute immunity from a lawsuit.

B) Such laws guarantee that the EMT will not be held liable if he or she is sued.

C) Such laws do not protect EMTs who are off duty.

D) Such laws will not protect the EMT in cases of gross negligence.

D

13. In the eyes of the courts, an incomplete or untidy patient care form indicates:

A) inadequate patient care was administered.

B) potential falsification of the patient care form.

C) thorough documentation was not required.

D) the EMT was too busy providing patient care to fill out the form.

A

14. Maintaining the chain of evidence at the scene of a crime should include:

A) quickly moving any weapons out of the patient’s sight.

B) placing the patient in a private area until the police arrive.

C) making brief notes at the scene and then completing them later.

D) not cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons.

D

15. Two EMTs witnessed a call in which a coworker gave adequate medical care but ignored the patient’s emotional needs. The coworker was deliberately rude solely because the patient was thought to be infected with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The EMTs ignored the coworker’s treatment of this patient and took no steps to prevent this behavior from happening again. This lack of action on the part of the two EMTs is considered:

A) legal and ethical.

B) legal but unethical.

C) illegal but ethical.

D) illegal and unethical.

B

16. Which of the following patients has decision-making capacity and can legally refuse emergency medical treatment?

A) A confused young male who says he is the president

B) A man who is staggering and states that he had three beers

C) A conscious and alert woman with severe abdominal pain

D) A diabetic woman who has slurred speech and is not aware of the date

C

17. Which of the following situations requires you to notify the appropriate authorities?

A) Cardiac arrest

B) Drug overdose

C) Attempted suicide

D) Accidental knife wound

C

18. An EMT would most likely be held liable for abandonment if he or she:

A) refused to care for a violent patient who is armed with a knife.

B) remained at the hospital for 30 minutes to give a patient report.

C) did not make provisions for continued care of an injured patient.

D) terminated care of a competent adult patient at his or her request.

C

19. Which of the following most accurately defines negligence?

A) Transport of a mentally incompetent patient against his or her will

B) Deviation from the standard of care that might result in further injury

C) Transferring patient care to a provider with a lower level of training

D) Providing care that is consistent with care provided by other EMTs

B

20. The manner in which the EMT must act or behave when caring for a patient is called the:

A) EMT oath.

B) code of ethics.

C) standard of care.

D) scope of practice.

C

1. Ethnocentrism is defined as:

A) understanding that people from different cultural backgrounds respond to pain and stress differently.

B) suspecting that a person has an ulterior motive based on the tone of his or her voice when answering a question.

C) subconsciously forcing your cultural values onto a patient because you believe that your own values are more acceptable.

D) considering your own cultural values as more important when interacting with people of a different culture.

D

2. Calming and reassuring an anxious patient can be facilitated by:

A) maintaining eye contact with the patient whenever possible.

B) using medical terminology to ensure the patient understands.

C) positioning yourself at a level that is higher than the patient.

D) withholding unpleasant information until arrival at the hospital.

A

3. In which of the following manners should you act and speak with a patient?

A) Passive

B) Authoritative

C) Loud and official

D) Calm and confident

D

4. Communicating with hearing-impaired patients can be facilitated by doing all of the following, except:

A) shining a light on your face when you are in a darkened environment.

B) elevating the tone of your voice and exaggerating word pronunciation.

C) placing yourself in a position to ensure that the patient can see your lips.

D) providing pen and paper if the patient prefers to write his or her response.

B

5. When communicating with a visually impaired patient, you should:

A) determine the degree of the patient’s impairment.

B) expect the patient to have difficulty understanding.

C) recall that most visually impaired patients are blind.

D) possess an in-depth knowledge of sign language.

A

6. The patient care report (PCR) ensures:

A) availability of research data.

B) legal protection.

C) quality assurance.

D) continuity of care.

D

7. All information recorded on the PCR must be:

A) typewritten or printed.

B) considered confidential.

C) a matter of public record.

D) reflective of your opinion.

B

8. A patient’s refusal of EMS treatment and/or transport must be:

A) an informed refusal.

B) authorized by a judge.

C) reported to the police.

D) witnessed by a notary.

A

9. Which of the following incidents does not require a report to be filed with local authorities?

A) Spousal abuse

B) Animal bites

C) Cardiac arrest

D) Gunshot wounds

C

10. Any radio hardware containing a transmitter and a receiver that is located in a fixed location is called a:

A) repeater.

B) multiplex.

C) mobile radio.

D) base station.

D

11. Which of the following statements is not appropriate to document in the narrative section of a PCR?

A) “General impression revealed that the patient was intoxicated.”

B) “Significant damage was noted to the front end of the vehicle.”

C) “The patient admits to smoking marijuana earlier in the day.”

D) “After oxygen was administered, the patient’s breathing improved.”

A

12. After delivering your patient to the hospital, you sit down to complete the handwritten PCR. When documenting the patient’s last blood pressure reading, you inadvertently write 120/60 instead of 130/70. To correct this mistake, you should:

A) draw a single horizontal line through the error, initial it, and write the correct data next to it.

B) erase the error, initial it, and then write the correct data on a separate addendum.

C) cover the error with correction fluid and then write the patient’s actual blood pressure over it.

D) leave the error on the PCR, but inform the staff of the patient’s actual blood pressure.

A

13. Which of the following statements regarding standing orders is correct?

A) Standing orders have less legal authority than orders given via radio.

B) Standing orders require you to contact medical control first before providing an intervention.

C) Standing orders only highlight the care that you may provide.

D) Standing orders should be followed when physician contact is not possible.

D

14. When relaying patient information via radio, communications should be:

A) brief and easily understood.

B) coded and scripted.

C) spoken in a loud voice.

D) lengthy and complete.

A

15. You could be sued for ___________ if your radio report to the hospital describes the patient in a manner that injures his or her reputation.

A) libel

B) assault

C) slander

D) negligence

C

16. During the alert and dispatch phase of EMS communications, the dispatcher’s responsibilities include all of the following, except:

A) discouraging the caller from providing care until the EMS unit arrives.

B) selecting and notifying the correct EMS response units and personnel.

C) screening and assigning a priority to each call based on local protocols.

D) coordinating responding EMS units with other public safety personnel.

A

17. When providing a patient report via radio, you should protect the patient’s privacy by:

A) using coded medical language.

B) not disclosing his or her name.

C) withholding medical history data.

D) refraining from objective statements.

B

18. You are caring for a 52-year-old man who complains of chest discomfort. The patient is a retired paramedic and is very anxious because he thinks he is having a heart attack. Which of the following statements would be appropriate?

A) “It is possible that you are experiencing a heart attack. I am going to give you four baby aspirin to chew and swallow.”

B) “I notice that you are a retired paramedic, so I’m sure you will understand all of the things that we will be doing to you.”

C) “This is nothing to worry about. Please try to stay calm. The physician at the hospital will probably not find any signs of a heart problem.”

D) “We need to take you to the ED stat. We will give you ASA and NTG en route and then reassess your vitals. Do you have any questions?”

A

19. Which of the following statements regarding communication with a child is correct?

A) Most children are intrigued by strangers wearing uniforms.

B) The EMT should give the child minimal information to avoid scaring him or her.

C) Standing over a child often increases his or her level of anxiety.

D) Unlike adults, children cannot see through lies or deceptions.

C

20. As you are wheeling your patient through the emergency department doors, you receive another call for a major motor vehicle crash. You should:

A) place the patient in a high-visibility area and then respond to the call.

B) inform the admissions clerk of the situation and then respond at once.

C) leave a copy of the run form with a nurse and then respond to the call.

D) respond only after giving a verbal patient report to a nurse or physician.

D

1. A 5-year-old boy has fallen and has a severe deformity of the forearm near the wrist. He has possibly sustained a fracture of the ____________ forearm.

A) proximal

B) superior

C) dorsal

D) distal

D

2. A fracture of the humerus just above the elbow would be described as a:

A) distal humerus fracture. 

B) proximal elbow fracture.

C) distal forearm fracture.

D) proximal humerus fracture.

A

3. The topographic term used to describe the location of body parts that are closer toward the midline of the body is:

A) lateral.

B) medial.

C) midaxillary.

D) midclavicular.

B

4. The topographic term used to describe the parts of the body that are nearer to the feet is:

A) dorsal.

B) inferior.

C) internal.

D) superior.

B

5. In relation to the wrist, the elbow is:

A) distal.

B) medial.

C) lateral.

D) proximal.

D

6. In relation to the chest, the back is:

A) ventral.

B) inferior.

C) anterior.

D) posterior.

D

7. Which of the following anatomic terms is synonymous with the word “dorsal”?

A) Medial

B) Posterior

C) Palmar

D) Anterior

B

8. A young male jumped from a tree and landed feet first. Which aspect of his body has sustained the initial injury?

A) Palmar

B) Plantar

C) Dorsal

D) Ventral

B

9. The ___________ of the heart is the inferior portion of the ventricles.

A) apex

B) base

C) dorsum

D) septum

A

10. Movement or motion away from the body’s midline is called:

A) flexion.

B) extension.

C) adduction.

D) abduction.

D

11. A patient has fractured both femurs. Anatomically, these injuries would be described as being:

A) medial.

B) proximal.

C) bilateral.

D) unilateral.

C

12. A patient with a pneumothorax has unilateral chest expansion. This means that:

A) both of his lungs are expanding when he inhales.

B) both sides of his chest are moving minimally.

C) only one side of his chest rises when he inhales.

D) his chest and his abdomen are moving in opposite directions.

C

13. An intoxicated 40-year-old male is found lying face down. How would you document his body’s position?

A) Dorsal

B) Supine

C) Prone

D) Recumbent

C

14. A patient in a semi-reclined position with the head elevated to facilitate breathing is in the ___________ position.

A) prone

B) supine

C) Semi-Fowler's

D) recovery

C

15. A diabetic patient has polydipsia. This means that she:

A) is excessively thirsty.

B) has low blood sugar.

C) is unable to swallow.

D) urinates frequently.

A

16. A pregnant patient is diagnosed with hyperemesis gravidarum. This means that:

A) she has frequent urination.

B) she has excessive vomiting.

C) her respiratory rate is rapid.

D) her unborn baby is very large.

B

17. The term “supraventricular tachycardia” means:

A) a slow heart rate that originates from within the ventricles.

B) a rapid heart rate that originates from within the ventricles.

C) a slow heart rate that originates from above the ventricles.

D) a rapid heart rate that originates from above the ventricles.

D

18. The term “pericardiocentesis” means:

A) a surgical opening made in the heart.

B) surgical repair of the sac around the heart.

C) the removal of fluid from around the heart.

D) narrowing of the arteries supplying the heart.

C

19. Enlargement of the liver is called:

A) nephritis.

B) hepatomegaly.

C) hydrocephalus.

D) pneumonitis.

B

20. After applying a tourniquet, the injury from a patient’s leg stops bleeding. This is called:

A) hemostasis.

B) hemiplegia.

C) hemolysis.

D) hematemesis.

A