Anesthesia - Quiz 2

0.0(0)
learnLearn
examPractice Test
spaced repetitionSpaced Repetition
heart puzzleMatch
flashcardsFlashcards
Get a hint
Hint

Flow Rate: Adult Breathing System

Get a hint
Hint

20-40ml/kg/min

Get a hint
Hint

Flow Rate: Non-Rebreathing System

Get a hint
Hint

150-250ml/kg/min

Card Sorting

1/74

Anonymous user
Anonymous user
encourage image

There's no tags or description

Looks like no tags are added yet.

Study Analytics
Name
Mastery
Learn
Test
Matching
Spaced

No study sessions yet.

75 Terms

1
New cards

Flow Rate: Adult Breathing System

20-40ml/kg/min

2
New cards

Flow Rate: Non-Rebreathing System

150-250ml/kg/min

3
New cards

3 classes of drugs for preanesthetic meds

Anticholinergics, Tranquilizers, Opioids

4
New cards

What are the purposes for preanesthetic meds?

-to calm or sedate

-Minimize adverse effects

-Reduce required dose of concurrently administered agents

-Produce smoother inductions and recoveries

-Decrease pain and discomfort

-Produce muscle relaxation

5
New cards

3 types of tranquilizers

- Phenothiazines

• Benzodiazepines

• Alpha 2 - adrenergic agonists

6
New cards

What are the reasons to calm or sedate a patient before induction?

-Potential to have a very excited, frightened, or vicious patient

-Enhances comfort

-Sedation

-Reduces anxiety

-Simplifies patient restraint

-Keep personnel safe

7
New cards

How to produce smoother inductions and recovery?

- During induction and recovery, patients pass through phase II excitement*

• Can be dangerous to themselves and personnel*

• Be prepared *

• Be knowledgeable

8
New cards

Decreasing pain and discomfort

-Important to decrease pain and discomfort before, during, and after each procedure

-Adjuncts must be given to provide the necessary level of analgesia

9
New cards

When should be produce muscle relaxation?

During ocular procedures and orthopedic procedures

10
New cards

SQ administration

slowest onset, longest duration

11
New cards

IM administration

-somewhat faster onset and shorter duration than SC

-Excitement or stimulation can override the effects of the agents

12
New cards

IV administration

-rapid onset, shorter duration than IM or SC

-potency and potential adverse effects increase

13
New cards

Anticholinergics

-Commonly used to prevent and treat bradycardia

-Decreases salivary secretions

-Noncontrolled

14
New cards

Most common agents used in anticholinergics:

Atropine and Glycopyrrolate

15
New cards

Atropine

-after IM injection – acts in 5 min – reaches peak effect in 10-20 min

• Duration of action– 60-90 minutes

16
New cards

Glycopyrrolate

-after IM injection - similar onset – reaches peak effect in 30-45 min

• Duration of action 2-3 hours

17
New cards

What effects do Anticholinergics have on the resp system?

-Reduction and thickening of respiratory and salivary secretions

-production of thick mucous within the airways

-May predispose the patient to airway occlusion

18
New cards

What are the adverse effects of Anticholinergics?

-Mydriasis- CSF tap

-Reduces GI motility

-Reduces lacrimal secretions

19
New cards

What drug is better choice for emergency treatment for bradycardia/cardiopulmonary arrest because of its faster onset of action?

Atropine

20
New cards

What drug is slightly less likely to induce cardiac arrhythmias?

Glycopyrrolate

21
New cards

Phenothiazine tranquilizers

-Protect against cardiac arrhythmias by protecting the myocardium against adrenaline (epinephrine)– induced fibrillation

-Acepromazine

-Noncontrolled

-Water soluble

• Antiemetics

• Histamine blockade

22
New cards

Benzodiazepine tranquilizers

-Can produce vomiting

• Good Muscle relaxant

23
New cards

Phenothiazine effects on the resp system

-does not cause significant respiratory depression

-drug of choice for patient in respiratory distress without other debilitating factors

24
New cards

When do we NOT use phenothiazines?

in patients undergoing allergy testing

25
New cards

Which dogs are very sensitive to acepromazine?

Giant breed dogs- greyhounds- and boxers

26
New cards

Benzodiazepines

-minor tranquilizers

-Most often used in combination with other agents for their muscle relaxant and anticonvulsant properties

-May cause dysphoria

-Diazepam, zolazepam, and midazolam are most commonly used

-

27
New cards

List the three drug classes used as pre-anesthetic medications.

Anticholinergics, Tranquilizers, and Opioids

28
New cards

Anticholinergics such as Atropine and Glycopyrrolate are used to treat ____________ and ___________ salivary secretions?

Bradycardia and decrease

29
New cards

Which classes of tranquilizers can cause penile prolapse in equine?

Phenothiazines

30
New cards

The reversal Flumazenil is the reversal (antagonist) of which tranquilizer class?

Benzodiazepines

31
New cards

What is currently the most commonly used alpha 2 agonist in small animal medicine?

Dexmedetomidine

32
New cards

Detomidine

-Used in horses to provide sedation, analgesia, and muscle relaxation

-Commonly given with butorphanol to produce standing sedation

-Used to provide analgesia for colic pain

<p>-Used in horses to provide sedation, analgesia, and muscle relaxation</p><p>-Commonly given with butorphanol to produce standing sedation</p><p>-Used to provide analgesia for colic pain</p>
33
New cards

Alpha 2 antagonists

yohimbine, tolazoline, atipamezole

34
New cards

Yohimbine and tolazoline are used to reverse what in dogs, cats, ruminants, horses, and exotic species?

xylazine

35
New cards

Atipamezole is used to reverse the effects of what in dogs, cats, and exotic species?

dexmedetomidine

36
New cards

What are the TWO most used halogenated compounds?

Isoflurane and Sevoflurane

37
New cards

True or False. The rate of diffusion is controlled by the concentration gradient between the alveolus and the bloodstream.

TRUE

38
New cards

Isoflurane has a ________ partition coefficient and Sevoflurane has a __________ coefficient.

HIGHER; LOW

39
New cards

List four reasons the MAC might vary

-Age

-Metabolic activity

-Body temperature

-Drugs/Adjuncts used

40
New cards

What are the most common inhalant MACs to know?

Isoflurane: 1.3%

Sevoflurane: 2.4%

41
New cards

An inhalant with LOW partition coefficient is LESS soluble. Please explain what is means for an inhalant to be less soluble.

-Faster induction and recovery

- Amount of inhalant in the alveoli will remain high, so the concentration will be wide

- This causes inhalant to enter and leave the bloodstream at a rapid rate

42
New cards

What is known to be the drug of choice for patients in respiratory distress without other debilitating factors?

Phenothiazines

43
New cards

Alpha 2 agonist effects on resp system

-resp depression (esp in ruminants)

-Brachycephalic dogs and horses with upper respiratory obstruction may become dyspneic

-can significantly decrease tidal volume and respiratory rate

44
New cards

Commonly used opioids include- agonists:

-Morphine

• Hydromorphone

• Oxymorphone

• Fentanyl

45
New cards

Opioid partial agonist drug

Buprenorphine

46
New cards

Opioid Agonist-antagonists drug

butorphanol

47
New cards

Opioid antagonist drug

Naloxone

48
New cards

What are the best drugs available for moderate and severe pain?

opioids

49
New cards

Opioid duration of action

0.5-3 hours

50
New cards

Can opioids cause bradycardia?

YES

51
New cards

Opioid effects on resp system

-Some dogs pant after administration due to the direct effect on the thermoregulatory center of the brain

-Can cause significant respiratory depression when given in higher doses or when used in conjunction with other agents that also cause respiratory depression

52
New cards

Opioids can cause _________ in dogs and ________ in cats, ruminants, and horses.

miosis (constriction) and mydriasis (dilation)

53
New cards

What is a great pre-med for high-risk patients and is used to prevent and treat pre- and post-op pain?

opioids

54
New cards

Neuroleptanalgesia

profound sedation and analgesia induced by the administration of an opioid and tranquilizer

55
New cards

What is Neuroleptanalgesia commonly used for?

procedures that require significant CNS depression and analgesia but not general anesthesia (FNA-Small biopsy)

56
New cards

What is one distinct advantage of using opioids?

their reversibility

57
New cards

Halogenated agents

-volatile substances transported to the patient by a carrier gas (oxygen)

-Stored in vaporizer and evaporate in the oxygen that flows through the vaporizer

<p>-volatile substances transported to the patient by a carrier gas (oxygen)</p><p>-Stored in vaporizer and evaporate in the oxygen that flows through the vaporizer</p>
58
New cards

Blood-gas partition coefficient

-measure of solubility

-the ratio of the concentration of an inhaled agent in the blood and in the alveolar gas

59
New cards

Low MAC= ________ potency

HIGH

60
New cards

High MAC= _____ potency

LOW

61
New cards

Minimum Alveolar Concentration (MAC)

-the lowest concentration at which 50% of patients show no response to painful stimuli

-Helps determine average vaporizer setting for a procedure

62
New cards

Isoflurane MAC value

1.3%

63
New cards

Sevoflurane MAC value

2.4%

64
New cards

Which is more potent and has a higher solubility........Isoflurane or Sevoflurane?

Isoflurane

65
New cards

Which of the following is an example of a halogenated liquid anesthetic?

Isoflurane

66
New cards

Which inhalant is the LEAST soluble of the following?

Sevoflurane

67
New cards

Which of the following is NOT a side effect of inhalant anesthetics?

Vasoconstriction (hypertension)

68
New cards

What type of drug is Atropine?

Anticholinergic

69
New cards

What type of opioid is fentanyl?

mu agonist

70
New cards

Which of the following drugs is a phenothiazine?

Acepromazine

71
New cards

After IV administration of this class of drug may induce significant peripheral vasoconstriction and reflex bradycardia.

Alpha 2 adrenergic agonist

72
New cards

What reflex should you wait to see before extubating your patient?

swallow

73
New cards

What is the tidal volume range for a 25kg pt?

250-375ml

74
New cards

This disease process is defined as thickening of the cardiac muscle leading to stiffening and failure of relaxation and adequate filling

HCM; hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

75
New cards

Which anesthetic drugs are ruminants extremely sensitive to?

xylazine