Jeppesen Text Guide 02 - Reciprocating Engine Operation, Maintenance, Inspection, and Overhaul

C

A condition that can occur in radial engines but is unlikely to occur in horizontally opposed engines is
A. valve overlap.
B. zero valve clearance.
C. hydraulic lock.

C

If the intake valve is opened too early in the cycle of operation of a four-stroke cycle engine, it may result in
A. improper scavenging of exhaust gases.
B. engine kickback.
C. backfiring into the induction system.

B

On which part of the cylinder walls of a normally operating engine will the greatest amount of wear occur?
A. Near the center of the cylinder where piston velocity is greatest.
B. Near the top of the cylinder.
C. Wear is normally evenly distributed.

B

During overhaul, reciprocating engine exhaust valves are checked for stretch
A. with a suitable inside spring caliper.
B. with a contour or radius gauge.
C. by placing the valve on a surface plate and measuring its length with a vernier height gauge.

B

During overhaul, the disassembled parts of an engine are usually degreased with some form of mineral spirits solvent rather than water-mixed degreasers primarily because
A. solvent degreasers are much more effective.
B. water-mixed degreaser residues may cause engine oil contamination in the overhauled engine.
C. water-mixed degreasers cause corrosion.

C

1. Cast iron piston rings may be used in chrome-plated cylinders.
2. Chrome-plated rings may be used in plain steel cylinders.

Regarding the above statements,
A. only No. 1 is true.,
B. neither No. 1 nor No.2 is true.
C. both No. 1 and No.2 are true.

A

When cleaning aluminum and magnesium engine parts, it is inadvisable to soak them in solutions containing soap because
A. some of the soap will become impregnated in the surface of the material and subsequently cause engine oil contamination and foaming.
B. the soap can chemically alter the metals causing them to become more susceptible to corrosion.
C. the parts can be destroyed by dissimilar metal electrolytic action if they are placed together in the solution for more than a few minutes.

B

What is the purpose of a power check on a reciprocating engine?
A. To check magneto drop.
B. To determine satisfactory performance.
C. To determine if the fuel/air mixture is adequate.

A

Which of the following will be caused by excessive valve clearance of a cylinder on a reciprocating aircraft engine?
A. Reduced valve overlap period.
B. Intake and exhaust valves will open early and
close late.
C. A power increase by shortening the exhaust
event.

A

Which of the following would indicate a general weak-engine condition when operated with a fixed-pitch propeller or test club?
A. Lower than normal static RPM, full throttle operation.
B. Manifold pressure lower at idle RPM than at static RPM.
C. Lower than normal manifold pressure for any given RPM.

B

What is required by 14 CFR Part 43 appendix D when performing an annual/100-hour inspection on a reciprocating engine aircraft?
A. Magneto timing check.
B. Cylinder compression check.
C. Valve clearance check.

C

After spark plugs from an opposed engine have been serviced, in what position should they be reinstalled?
A. Next in firing order to the one from which they were removed.
B. Swapped bottom to top.
C. Next in firing order to the one from which they were removed and swapped bottom to top.

C

As the pressure is applied during a reciprocating engine compression check using a differential pressure tester, what would a movement of the propeller in the direction of engine rotation indicate?
A. The piston was on compression stroke.
B. The piston was on exhaust stroke.
C. The piston was positioned past top dead center.

A

Excessive valve clearance results in the valves opening
A. late and closing early.
B. early and closing late.
C. late and closing late.

A

During routine inspection of a reciprocating engine, a deposit of small, bright, metallic particles which do not cling to the magnetic drain plug is discovered in the oil sump and on the surface of the oil filter. This condition
A. may be a result of abnormal plain type bearing wear and is cause for further investigation.
B. is probably a result of ring and cylinder wall wear and is cause for engine removal and/or overhaul.
C. is normal in engines utilizing plain type bearings and aluminum pistons and is not cause for alarm.

C

A characteristic of dyna-focal engine mounts as applied to aircraft reciprocating engines is that the
A. shock mounts eliminate the torsional flexing of the powerplant.
B. engine attaches to the shock mounts at the engine's center of gravity.
C. shock mounts point toward the engine's center of gravity.

B

If metallic particles are found in the oil filter during an inspection,
A. it is an indication of normal engine wear unless the particles are nonferrous.
B. the cause should be identified and corrected before the aircraft is released for flight.
C. it is an indication of normal engine wear unless the deposit exceeds a specified amount.

B

If the oil pressure gauge fluctuates over a wide range from zero to normal operating pressure, the most likely cause is.
A. low oil supply.
B. broken or weak pressure relief valve spring.
C. air lock in the scavenge pump intake.

A

Which of the following is most likely to occur if an overhead valve engine is operated with inadequate valve clearances?
A. The valve will not seat positively during start and engine warmup.
B. The further decrease in valve clearance that occurs as engine temperatures increase will cause
damage to the valve-operating mechanism.
C. The valves will remain closed for longer periods than specified by the engine manufacturer.

B

Excessive valve clearances will cause the duration of valve opening to
A. increase for both intake and exhaust valves.
B. decrease for both intake and exhaust valves.
C. decrease for intake valves and increase for exhaust valves.

B

Engine crankshaft runout is usually checked
1. during engine overhaul.
2. during annual inspection.
3. after a "prop strike" or sudden engine stoppage.
4. during 100-hour inspection.
A. 1,3, and 4.
B. 1 and 3.
C. 1,2 and 3.

C

Before attempting to start a radial engine that has been shut down for more than 30 minutes,
A. turn the propeller by hand three or four revolutions in the opposite direction of normal rotation to check for liquid lock.
B. turn the ignition switch on before energizing the starter.
C. turn the propeller by hand three to four revolutions in the normal direction of rotation to check for liquid lock.

A

An engine misses in both the right and left positions of the magneto switch. The quickest method for locating the trouble is to
A. check for one or more cold cylinders.
B. perform a compression check.
C. check each spark plug.

B

A hissing sound from the exhaust stacks when the propeller is being pulled through manually indicates
A. a cracked exhaust stack.
B. exhaust valve blow-by.
C. worn piston rings.

B

If an engine cylinder is to be removed, at what position in the cylinder should the piston be?
A. Bottom dead center.
B. Top dead center.
C. Halfway between top and bottom dead center.

C

Engine operating flexibility is the ability of the engine to
A. deliver maximum horsepower at a specific altitude.
B. meet exacting requirements of efficiency and low weight per horsepower ratio.
C. run smoothly and give the desired performance at all speeds.

B

Standard aircraft cylinder oversizes usually range from 0.010 inch to 0.030 inch. Oversize on automobile engine cylinders may range up to 0.100 inch. This is because aircraft engine cylinders
A. have more limited cooling capacity.
B. have relatively thin walls and may be nitrided.
C. operate at high temperatures.

C

During ground check an engine is found to be rough-running, the magneto drop is normal, and the manifold pressure is higher than normal for any given RPM. The trouble may be caused by
A. several spark plugs fouled on different cylinders.
B. a leak in the intake manifold.
C. a dead cylinder.

A

What is the best indication of worn valve guides?
A. High oil consumption.
B. Low compression.
C. Low oil pressure.

A

Direct mechanical push-pull carburetor heat control linkages should normally be adjusted so that the stop located on the diverter valve will be contacted

A. before the stop at the control lever is reached in both HOT and COLD positions.

B. before the stop at the control lever is reached in the HOT position and after the stop at the control lever is reached in the COLD position.

C. after the stop at the control lever is reached in both HOT and COLD positions.

B

Which of the following engine servicing operations generally requires engine pre-oiling prior to starting the engine?
A. Engine oil and filter change.
B. Engine installation.
C. Replacement of oil lines.

C

During the inspection of an engine control system in which push-pull control rods are used, the threaded rod ends should
A. not be adjusted in length for rigging purposes because the rod ends have been properly positioned and staked during manufacture.
B. be checked for thread engagement of at least two threads but not more than four threads.
C. be checked for the amount of thread engagement by means of the inspection holes.

C

Which of the following would most likely cause a reciprocating engine to backfire through the induction system at low RPM operation?
A. Idle mixture too rich.
B. Clogged derichment valve.
C. Lean mixture.

B

How may it be determined that a reciprocating engine with a dry sump is pre-oiled sufficiently?
A. The engine oil pressure gauge will indicate normal oil pressure.
B. Oil will flow from the engine return line or indicator port.
C. When the quantity of oil specified by the manufacturer has been pumped into the engine.

A

Backfiring through the carburetor generally results from the use of
A. an excessively lean mixture.
B. excessively atomized fuel.
C. an excessively rich mixture.

C

If air is heard coming from the crankcase breather or oil filler during a differential compression check, what is this an indication of?
A. Exhaust valve leakage.
B. Intake valve leakage.
C. Piston ring leakage.

C

One cause of afterfiring in an aircraft engine is
A. sticking intake valves.
B. an excessively lean mixture.
C. an excessively rich mixture.

C

Standard sea level pressure is
A. 29.00" Hg.
B. 29.29" Hg.
C. 29.92" Hg.

A

Using standard atmospheric conditions, the standard sea level temperature is
A. 59°F.
B. 59°C.
C. 29°C.

C

Newton's First Law of Motion, generally termed the Law of Inertia, states
A. To every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.
B. Force is proportional to the product of mass and acceleration.
C. Every body persists in its state of rest, or of motion in a straight line, unless acted upon by some outside force.

A

(Refer to figure 1) Determine which portion of the AD is applicable for Model 0-690 series engine, serial No.5863-40 with 283 hours time in service.
A. B,1.
B. A.
C. B,2.

B

A Cessna 180 aircraft has a McCauley propeller Model No.2A34C50/90A. The propeller is severely damaged in a ground accident, and this model propeller is not available for replacement. Which of the following should be used to find an approved alternate replacement?
A. Summary of Supplemental Type Certificates.
B. Aircraft Specifications/Type Certificate Data Sheets.
C. Aircraft Engine and Propeller Specifications/Type Certificate Data Sheets.

C

1. Airworthiness Directives are Federal Aviation Regulations and must be complied with unless specific exemption is granted.
2. Airworthiness Directives of an emergency nature require immediate compliance upon receipt.

Regarding the above statements,
A. only No. 1 is true.
B. only No. 2 is true.
C. both No. 1 and No. 2 arc true.

B

Which of the following contains a minimum checklist for 100-hour inspections of engines?
A. 14 CFR Part 33, Appendix A.
B. 14 CFR Part 43, Appendix D.
C. Engine Specifications or Type Certificate Data Sheets.

B

Which of the following contains a table that lists the engines to which a given propeller is adaptable?
A. Aircraft Type Certificate Data Sheets. B. Propeller Type Certificate Data Sheets.
C. Engine Type Certificate Data Sheets.

B

Which of the following component inspections is to be accomplished on a 100-hour inspection?
A. Check internal timing of magneto.
B. Check cylinder compression.
C. Check valve timing.

B

Where would one find type design information for an R1830-92 engine certificated under the Civil Air Regulations (CAR) and installed on a DC-3?
A. The Aircraft Specifications and Type Certificate Data sheet.
B. The Aircraft Engine Specifications.
C. The Aircraft Engine Type Certificate Handbook.

A

The breaking loose of small pieces of metal from coated surfaces, usually caused by defective plating or excessive loads, is called
A. flaking.
B. chafing.
C. brinelling.

A

Each powerplant installed on an airplane with a Standard Airworthiness Certificate must have been
A. type certificated.
B. manufactured under the TSO system.
C. originally certificated for that aircraft.

C

A severe condition of chafing or fretting in which a transfer of metal from one part to another occurs is called
A. scoring.
B. burning.
C. galling.

B

Indentations on bearing races caused by high static loads are known as
A. fretting.
B. brinelling.
C. galling.

C

When inspecting an aircraft reciprocating engine what document is used to determine if the proper magnetos are installed?
A. Instructions for continued airworthiness issued by the engine manufacturer.
B. Engine Manufacturer's Maintenance Manual.
C. Aircraft Engine Specifications or Type Certificate Data Sheets.

C

Which of the following can inspect and approve an engine major repair for return to service?
A. Certificated mechanic with airframe and power-plant ratings.
B. Certificated mechanic with a powerplant rating.
C. Certificated mechanic with inspection authorization.

B

What publication is used for guidance to determine whether a powerplant repair is major or minor?
A. Airworthiness Directives.
B. Federal Aviation Regulations, Part 43, appendix A.
C. Technical Standard Orders.

B

The airworthiness standards for the issue of type certificates for small airplanes with nine or less passenger seats in the normal, utility, and acrobatic categories may be found in the
A. Supplemental Type Certificate.
B. Federal Aviation Regulations, Part 23.
C. Federal Aviation Regulations, Part 21.

C

Which of the following contains approved data for performing a major repair to an aircraft engine?
A. Engine Type Certificate Data Sheets.
B. Supplemental Type Certificates.
C. Manufacturer's maintenance instructions when FAA approved.

B

What maintenance record(s) is/are required following a major repair of an aircraft engine?
A. Entries in engine maintenance records and a list of discrepancies for the FAA.
B. Entries in the engine maintenance record and FAA Form 337.
C. Entry in logbook.

A

A ground incident that results in propeller sudden stoppage may require a crankshaft runout inspection. What publication would be used to obtain crankshaft runout tolerance?
A. Current Manufacturer's maintenance instructions.
B. Type Certificate Data Sheet.
C. AC 43.13-1 A, Acceptable Methods, Techniques, and Practices Aircraft Inspection and Repair.

A

Select the Airworthiness Directive applicability statement which applies to an IVO-355 engine, serial number T8164, with 2,100 hours total time and 300 hours since rebuilding.
A. Applies to all IVO-355 engines, serial numbers T8000 through T83OO, having less than 2,400 hours total time.
B. Applies to all IVO-355 engines, serial numbers T8000 through T8900 with 2,400 hours or more total time.
C. Applies to all I.O. and TV10-355 engines, all serial numbers regardless of total time or since overhaul.

C

What section in the instructions for continued airworthiness is FAA approved?
A. Engine maintenance manual or section.
B. Engine overhaul manual or section.
C. Airworthiness limitations section.

A

Which unit most accurately indicates fuel consumption of a reciprocating engine?
A. Fuel flowmeter.
B. Fuel pressure gauge.
C. Electronic fuel quantity indicator.

B

The fuel flowmeter used with a continuous-fuel injection system installed on an aircraft horizontally opposed reciprocating engine measures the fuel pressure drop across the
A. manifold valve.
B. fuel nozzles.
C. metering valve.

C

The principle fault in the pressure type fuel flowmeter indicating system, installed on a horizontally opposed continuous-flow fuel injected aircraft reciprocating engine, is that a plugged fuel injection nozzle will cause a
A. normal operation indication.
B. lower than normal fuel flow indication.
C. higher than normal fuel flow indication.

A

Motor driven impeller and turbine fuel flow transmitters are designed to transmit data
A. using aircraft electrical system power. B. mechanically.
C. by fuel pressure.

A

The fuel-flow indicator rotor and needle for a motor-impeller and turbine indicating system is driven by
A. an electrical signal.
B. direct coupling to the motor shaft.
C. a mechanical gear train.

B

On a twin-engine aircraft with fuel-injected reciprocating engines, one fuel-flow indicator reads considerably higher than the other in all engine operating configurations. What is the probable cause of this indication?
A. Carburetor icing.
B. One or more fuel nozzles are clogged.
C. Alternate air door stuck open.

B

The fuel-flow indication system used with many fuel-injected opposed engine airplanes utilizes a measure of
A. fuel flow volume.
B. fuel pressure.
C. fuel flow mass.

B

In addition to fuel quantity, a computerized fuel system (CFS) with a totalizer-indicator provides indication of how many of the following?

1. Fuel flow rate.

2. Fuel used since reset or initial start-up.

3. Fuel time remaining at current power setting.

4. Fuel temperature.

A. TWO.

B. Three.

C. Four.

A

The fuel-flow indication data sent from motor driven impeller and turbine, and motorless type fuel flow transmitters is a measure of
A. fuel mass-flow.
B. fuel volume-flow.
C. engine burner pressure drop.

B

In an aircraft equipped with a pressure-drop type fuel-flow indicating system, if one of the injector nozzles becomes restricted, this would cause a decrease in fuel flow with
A. a decreased fuel flow indication on the gauge.
B. an increased fuel flow indication on the gauge.
C. no change in fuel flow indication on the gauge.

C

A manifold pressure gauge is designed to
A. maintain constant pressure in the intake manifold.
B. indicate differential pressure between the intake manifold and atmospheric pressure.
C. indicate absolute pressure in the intake manifold.

B

The purpose of an exhaust gas analyzer is to indicate the
A. brake specific fuel consumption.
B. fuel/air ratio being burned in the cylinders.
C. temperature of the exhaust gases in the exhaust manifold.

B

Which of the following types of electric motors are commonly used in electric tachometers?
A. Direct current, series-wound motors.
B. Synchronous motors.
C. Direct current, shunt-wound motors.

C

Where are the hot and cold junctions located in an engine cylinder temperature indicating system?
A. Both junctions are located at the instrument.
B. Both junctions are located at the cylinder.
C. The hot junction is located at the cylinder and the cold junction is located at the instrument.

B

Basically, the indicator of a tachometer system is responsive to change in
A. current flow.
B. frequency.
C. voltage.

B

Which statement is correct concerning a thermocouple-type temperature indicating instrument system?
A. It is a balanced-type, variable resistor circuit.
B. It requires no external power source.
C. It usually contains a balancing circuit in the instrument case to prevent fluctuations of the system voltage from affecting the temperature reading.

B

Which statement is true regarding a thermocouple-type cylinder head temperature measuring system?
A. The resistance required for cylinder head temperature indicators is measured in farads.
B. The voltage output of a thermocouple system is determined by the temperature difference between the two ends of the thermocouple.
C. When the master switch is turned on, a thermocouple indicator will move off-scale to the low side.

B

What basic meter is used to indicate cylinder head temperature in most aircraft?
A. Electrodynamometer.
B. Galvanometer.
C. Thermocouple-type meter.

A

Which of the following is a primary engine instrument?
A. Tachometer.
B. Fuel flow meter.
C. Airspeed indicator.

A

A complete break in the line between the manifold pressure gauge and the induction system will be indicated by the gauge registering
A. prevailing atmospheric pressure.
B. zero.
C. lower than normal for conditions prevailing.

B

Engine oil temperature gauges indicate the temperature of the oil
A. entering the oil cooler.
B. entering the engine.
C. in the oil storage tank.

C

Why do helicopters require a minimum of two synchronous tachometer systems?
A. One indicates engine RPM and the other tail rotor RPM.
B. One indicates main rotor RPM and the other tail rotor RPM.
C. One indicates engine RPM and the other main rotor RPM.

B

If the thermocouple leads were inadvertently crossed at installation, what would the cylinder temperature gauge pointer indicate?
A. Normal temperature for prevailing condition.
B. Moves off-scale on the zero side of the meter.
C. Moves off-scale on the high side of the meter.

A

A common type of electrically operated oil temperature gauge utilizes
A. either a wheatstone bridge or ratiometer circuit.
B. a thermocouple type circuit.
C. vapor pressure and pressure switches.

C

The indication on a thermocouple-type cylinder head temperature indicator is produced by
A. resistance changes in two dissimilar metals.
B. a difference in the voltage between two dissimilar metals.
C. a current generated by the temperature difference between dissimilar metal hot and cold junctions.

A

(1) Powerplant instrument range markings show whether the current state of powerplant operation is normal, acceptable for a limited time,
or unauthorized.
(2) Powerplant instrument range markings are based on installed engine operating limits which may not exceed (but are not necessarily equal to) those
limits shown on the engine Type Certificate Data Sheet.

Regarding the above statements,
A. both No. 1 and No.2 are true.
B. neither No. l nor No.2 is true.
C. only No. l is true.

B

Thermocouple leads
A. may be installed with either lead to either post of the indicator.
B. are designed for a specific installation and may not be altered.
C. may be repaired using solderless connectors.

A

What unit in a tachometer system sends information to the indicator?
A. The three-phase ac generator.
B. The two-phase ac generator.
C. The synchronous motor.

B

Which of the following instrument discrepancies require replacement of the instrument?
1. Red line missing from glass.
2. Glass cracked.
3. Case paint chipped.
4. Will not zero out.
5. Pointer loose on shaft.
6. Mounting screw loose.
7. Leaking at line B nut.
8. Fogged.

A. 2, 3, 7, 8.
B. 2, 4, 5, 8.
C. 1, 2, 4, 7.

A

A Bourdon-tube instrument may be used to indicate
1. pressure.
2. temperature.
3. position.
4. quantity.

A. 1 and 2.
B. 1 and 3.
C. 2 and 4.

C

Which of the following instrument conditions is acceptable and does NOT require immediate correction?
1. Red line missing.
2. Pointer loose on shaft.
3. Glass cracked.
4. Mounting screws loose.
5. Case paint chipped.
6. Leaking at line B nut.
7. Will not zero out.
8. Fogged.
A. 1.
B. 4.
C. 5.

C

Instruments that provide readings of low or negative pressure, such as manifold pressure gauges, are usually what type?
A. Vane with calibrated spring.
B. Bourdon tube.
C. Diaphragm or bellows.

B

Instruments that measure relatively high fluid pressures, such as oil pressure gauges, are usually what type?
A. Vane with calibrated spring.
B. Bourdon tube.
C. Diaphragm or bellows.

C

The RPM indication of a synchronous ac motor-tachometer is governed by the generator
A. voltage.
B. current.
C. frequency.

A

The EGT gauge used with reciprocating engines is primarily used to furnish temperature readings in order to
A. obtain the best mixture setting for fuel efficiency.
B. obtain the best mixture setting for engine cooling.
C. prevent engine overtemperature.

B

A red triangle, dot, or diamond mark on an engine instrument face or glass indicates
A. the maximum operating limit for all normal operations.
B. the maximum limit for high transients such as starting.
C. a restricted operating range.

C

Thermocouples are usually inserted or installed on the
A. front cylinder of the engine.
B. rear cylinder of the engine.
C. hottest cylinder of the engine.

C

A spark plug is fouled when
A. its spark grounds by jumping electrodes.
B. it causes preignition.
C. its spark grounds without jumping electrodes.

B

Under which of the following conditions would an engine run lean even though there is a normal amount of fuel present?
A. The use of too high an octane rating fuel.
B. Incomplete fuel vaporization.
C. The carburetor air heater valve in the HOT position.

C

When an electric primer is used, fuel pressure is built up by the
A. internal pump in the primer solenoid.
B. suction at the main discharge nozzle.
C. booster pump.