Clin Med Cumulative

Old Exam 3: Which clinical finding is suggestive of platelet disorder?

a. ecchymosis

b. hemarthrosis

c. petechiae

c

Old Exam 3: Which of hte following is a hypercoagulable state?

a. thromcotyponeia

b. hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia

c. hemophilia A

d. protein C deficiency

d

Old Exam 3: Which factors are considered to be vitamin K dependent?

a. 7, 9

b. 9, 11

c. 7, 11

d. 8, 10

a

Old Exam 3: For which patient is DDAVP is the initial agent used to promote hemostasis?

a. hemophilia A

b. vWF disease

c. idiopathic thrombocytopenia

d. liver disease

b

Old Exam 3: angular cheilitis and glossitis may be seen most often in which condition?

a. anemia

b. lymphoma

c. leukemia

d. erythrocytosis

a

Old Exam 3: what would the paltelet count be with serious intra-cranial bleeds?

a. 150k

b. 100k

c. less than 10k

d. none

c

Exam 1: Why medical emergencies are increasing?

Aging population, Advances in medical, Pharmacologic therapies, Substance abuse

Exam 1: What type of electrocautery is prohibited in patients with pacemaker?

Unipolar electrocautery

Exam 1: The key factor to know how sever patient's asthma is:

Hospitalization

Exam 1: Primary Addison's led to increase---------- in skin.

Melanin

Exam 1: Tachycardia is defined when pulse is-----

Great than 100 bpm

Exam 1: The proper blood pressure cuff size is

20-50% bigger than diameter of limb (too small falsely high; too large falsely low)

Exam 1: INR is considered as routine test T/F

F (Indicated)

Exam 1: Which indicated test should be done if patients are on warfarin therapy?

INR

Exam 1: What is the main purpose of getting a medical consult?

Is the patient in optimal condition? (Never ask for clearance)

Exam 1: What is ASA classification of patient with severe systemic disease that limits activity but is not incapacitating?

ASA III

Exam 1: Who is part of dental office emergency response team?

Doctor, dental assistant/hygienists, front office staff

Exam 1: What are components of rapid, effective team response?

PPO (preparation, practice, and organization)

Exam 1: The most common oxygen storage in dental offices?

Green steel cylinder (E tank 690L): last for ~1hour if face mask is used (face mask flow rate can be adjusted up to 10 L/min)

Exam 1: How much epinephrine does Epipen Auto-injector have? (Anaphylaxis dose)

0.3 mg (Jr. has half of that)

Exam 1: What is dead man dose of epinephrine?

1 mg via IV every 3-5 minutes

Exam 1: What is the MOA of Albuterol?

Direct acting on B2-adrenergic receptor and cause bronchodilation(selective)

Exam 1: 1 gram of glucose IV will increase blood glucose by....

3 mg/dL

Exam 1: What is MOA of Atropine?

Muscarinic antagonist (increase BBB and cause vagolytic effects: increase HR, decrease secretions, antispasmotics)

Exam 1: Who greets every suspected heart attack?

MONA (Morphine, Oxygen, Nitroglycerin, Aspirin)

Exam 1: Glucagon stimulates hepatic glycogenolysis and -------- blood glucose.

Increases

Exam 1: What is MOA of benzodiazepine?

Positive allosteric modulator of GABA (anticonvulsant)

Exam 1: What are possible enteral routes of drug administration?

Oral, rectal, sublingual

Exam 1: What are possible parenteral routes of drug administration?

IV, IM, IO,...

Exam 1: Which airway equipment require advance training?

Combitube, endotracheal tube, laryngeal mask airway

Exam 1: Soft tissue collapse is one cause of respiratory obstruction, what are some treatment options?

Jaw thrust, tongue jaw lift, nasopharyngeal and oropharyngeal airway

Exam 1: When systemic complications occur the most?

During/ following local anesthetic injection

Exam 1: What is the most common cause of syncope in a dental office?

Vasovagal reaction (management: Trendelenburg position and Atropine for bradycardia)

Exam 1: To manage hyperventilation, we can ask the patient to breath into a.............

PAPER bag (not a plastic bag) and supplemental O2 is not needed

Exam 1: What type of seizure is found in 90% of epileptic patients?

Grand mal seizure (seizure last 2-3 minutes and patients return to normal state in 2 hours)

Exam 1: Tonic is

Sustained generalized muscle contraction

Exam 1: Clonic is

Intermittent and rhythmic muscular contraction

Exam 1: What type of emergency status epilepticus is?

Life threatening emergency (lasting over 5 minutes)

Exam 1: How would you manage a patient with aspirated object that cannot be retrieved?

Consult, obtain radiographs to determine location of object

Exam 1: How would you manage new onset of angina?

Terminate dental procedure and seek medical assistance immediately

Exam 1: What is important physical finding of acute MI?

Chest pain/angina that does not alleviate with nitroglycerine (Activate EMS, MONA)

Exam 1: What is the most common type of stroke?

Occlusive

Exam 1: What is one important physical finding of stroke?

Alteration of consciousness (Stupor, confusion, seizures, delirium)

Exam 1: Hypoglycemia happens when blood glucose falls below....

50 mg/dL

Exam 1: What agent cause oral hypoglycemic overdose?

Sulfonylurea

Exam 1: What is proper hypoglycemia treatment if patient is unconscious?

50% dextrose IV

Exam 1: What does chest x-ray show in emphysema (pink puffer)?

Hyperinflation with flattened diaphragm (barrel chested)

Exam 1: What is an important feature of chronic bronchitis?

Cyanotic (blue bloaters)

Exam 1: What is the first thing happening after smoking cessation?

Sympathomimetic goes away (heart rate goes down and blood pressure normalize)

Exam 1: What is the second thing happening in acute effect of smoking cessation?

Decrease carboxyhemoglobin levels and shifts oxyhemoglobin curve to RIGHT

Exam 1: What are three extra fluid factors regulating blood pressure through ANS?

Epinephrine, norepinephrine, dopamine

Exam 1: What is BP classification of a patient present with 125/75?

Elevated

Exam 1: All beta blockers are equally effective as------------ agents.

Antihypertensive

Exam 1: What is non-selective beta blockers that may be used for migraine therapy?

Propranolol

Exam 1: interaction of non-selective beta blockers like propranolol and epinephrine can cause-------

Hypertensive crisis

Exam 1: what are two common cardio selective drugs?

Atenolol and metoprolol

Exam 1: How many days NSAIDs can be used with beta blockers without reducing the effectiveness of them?

7-10 days

Exam 1: Dentists should not ask patients for abrupt cessation of beta blockers because:

Rebound tachycardia and hypertension that precipitate heart disease/MI

Exam 1: ACE inhibitors like Lisinopril has drug interaction with:

NSAIDs

Exam 1: Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker that can have a side effect inside oral cavity like:

Gingival hyperplasia

Exam 1: Pregnant women in their 3rd trimester can experience supine hypotensive syndrome which is due to.......

Compression of vena cava by gravid uterus

Exam 1: What is the most common symptoms of coronary artery disease?

Chest pain (angina)

Exam 1: What is the most common underlying cause of coronary artery disease?

Atherosclerosis

Exam 1: In angina pectoris ST segment is....

Depressed that coincides with angina

Exam 1: In prinzmetal's angina ST segment is

Elevated

Exam 1: Prinzmetal's angina is similar to angina pectoris except is occurs at

Rest and not with exertion (also it's treated with calcium channel blockers and does not respond well to nitroglycerin)

Exam 1: What are pain symptoms of unstable angina/NSTEMI

Angina at rest or new onset, increase in frequency or severity, >10 minutes in duration

Exam 1: ST segment for STEMI is

Elevated that coincides with angina and does not resolve

Exam 1: PTCA (balloon angioplasty) can include...

Stent placement

Exam 1: Stable angina or post-ACS can be seen for dental treatment after.....

One month

Old Exam 3: What is the most common organism associated with gastritis?

H. pylori

Old Exam 3: when comparing Vitmin B23 deficiency with folic acid deficiency, besides differences in B12 and B9 levels, which of the following findings is a distinguishing factor?

Neurologic symptoms

Old Exam 3: What is the blood supply of the liver?

portal vein 75% and hepatic artery 25%

Old Exam 3: when evaluating livery injury from a liver function test, which enzyme is more specific in making the diagnosis?

ALT

Old Exam 3: Hepatitis A and E are similar in that they...

a. both are DNA viruses

b. both have carrier state

c. transmission via fecal-oral route

d. no vaccines

c

Old Exam 3: EPO is pirmarily released from which organ?

kidney

Old Exam 3: What is the initial agent used for hemostasis in Von Williebrand's disease treatment?

DDAVP

Old Exam 3: The Child Classsification for liver injury includes a number of parametesr one such is

a. pain

b. ascities

c. pre-albumin

d. scar formation

b

Old Exam 3: Which Clotting Factors are Vit K dependent?

2, 7, 9, 10

Old Exam 3: "Coffee Grounds" emesis is another term for?

hematemesis

Old Exqm 3: amoxicillin and ___ can be used to eradicate H. pylori?

metronidazole

Old Exam 3: Intracranial Bleeding can occur around ___ platelet count

less than 10k

Old Exam 3: What is the most common opportunistic disease accompanied by HIV infection?

candidiasis

Old Exam 3: Supine hypotension?

pregnant woman lays supine, blocks IVC gets hypotenssive

Old Exam 3: Disruption during the 1st trimester results in disruption of?

Organogenesis

Old Exam 3: Best time for dental tx for pregnant patient is?

second trimester

Old Exam 3: risk of HIV transmission to health care provider via needle stick is?

0.3%

Old Exam 3: T/F 1/3 of population of US will have atleast 1 psychiatric disorder throughout lifetime?

T

Old Exam 3: most common bipolar tx?

lithium

Old Exam 3: Antipsychotic Drugs like lithium may result in what oral conditions?

xerostomia

Old Exam 3: Non-Hodkin lymphoma affects what cells?

B cells

Old Exam 3: most ocmmon gingival enlargment due to WBC infiltrating gingiva is?

AML

Old Exam 3: Metaplastic changes in tissue lining of esophagus is known as ?

Barrett's esophagus

Old Exam 3: spider telangiectasia, glossitis, parotid enlargment are all signs of?

liver failure/ hepatitis

Old exam 3: Which hepatitis diseases have a vaccine?

A and B

Old Exam 3: Angular cheilitis and glossitis may be seen most often in which condition?

anemia

Remembered exam 3 Q: What type of virus is Hepatitis B?

DNA Virus

Remembered exam 3 Q: Which of the following shows the most highest chronic carrier state?

A. Hep A

B. Hep B

C. Hep C

D. Hep D

E. Hep E

C. Hep c

Remembered exam 3 Q: Von Willebrand Factor is most related to which clotting factor?

Factor 8

Remembered exam 3 Q: What is the most commonly used medication for mood disorder and depression?

Lithum