Bacteriology Specimen Handling, Collection, Transport, and Processing Review

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Flashcards reviewing specimen collection, transport media, anticoagulants, storage temperatures, processing guidelines, and critical values in bacteriology.

Last updated 10:34 PM on 9/10/26
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119 Terms

1
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During which phase of illness should bacterial specimens ideally be collected?

Acute or early phase of illness

2
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Why should contamination from normal biota be minimized during specimen collection?

Because normal biota contamination can interfere with culture results

3
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What labeling issue leads to immediate specimen rejection?

Unidentified or improperly labeled specimen

4
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What is the rejection criterion when specimen documentation does not match the sample tube?

Label–requisition mismatch

5
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What parameters regarding collection and transport conditions cause specimen rejection?

Improper temperature, medium, container, or insufficient quantity

6
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Why is a specimen that leaks during transport unacceptable for processing?

It poses a contamination risk and potential exposure, making it unacceptable

7
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Why are specimens submitted in formalin or other fixatives rejected for bacterial culture?

Fixatives kill bacteria, rendering the sample unsuitable for culture

8
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When is an anaerobic culture specimen rejected based on its collection site?

When collected from a site containing normal anaerobes

9
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Why is a dried swab unacceptable for laboratory processing?

Desiccation kills delicate bacteria, making the specimen non-viable

10
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What are the rejection criteria for an expectorated sputum specimen?

Fewer than 25 WBCs, more than 10 epithelial cells/LPF, and mixed flora

11
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How do swab specimens compare to tissue or needle aspirates?

Swab specimens are generally poorer quality compared to tissue or needle aspirates

12
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What is the preferred specimen collection method and site for lesions, wounds, and abscesses?

Aspirate obtained from the advancing margin

13
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What is the ideal transport time for most bacterial specimens?

Within 30 minutes

14
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What is the general maximum target time for most specimens to reach the laboratory?

Within 2 hours

15
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Within what time frame should anaerobic culture specimens be transported?

10 minutes or less

16
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Within what time frame should Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF) reach the laboratory?

Within 15 minutes

17
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How long may blood and bone marrow specimens be kept at room temperature?

Up to 2 hours

18
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How should gastric biopsy specimens be transported?

Immediately at 4oC4^\text{o}\text{C}

19
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What are the transport time and storage temperature requirements for catheterized urine?

Transported within 2 hours and refrigerated when necessary at 4oC4^\text{o}\text{C}

20
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Which specimens may be stored at 4oC4^\text{o}\text{C} for up to 24 hours?

Rectal swabs, stool cultures, and clean-voided midstream urine

21
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What is the temperature rule for viral isolation specimens?

Refrigerated immediately, but should never be frozen

22
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Which chemical agent may be used as a urine preservative?

Boric acid

23
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Which transport medium is used when stool processing is delayed for more than 2 hours?

Cary-Blair medium

24
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What storage temperature is used for long-term preservation of tissue and specimens?

70oC-70^\text{o}\text{C}

25
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What storage temperature is used for serum intended for serology testing?

20oC-20^\text{o}\text{C}

26
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What storage temperature is recommended for CSF intended for Gram stain, culture, and sensitivity?

35oC35^\text{o}\text{C}

27
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What temperature range is recommended for holding anaerobic cultures, sterile body fluids, and genital swabs?

2225oC22-25^\text{o}\text{C}

28
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What transport medium is specified for general swab specimens?

Stuart's medium

29
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Which transport medium is commonly used for bacterial swabs?

Amies medium

30
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Which transport medium is designed for delayed stool specimens?

Cary-Blair medium

31
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Which transport system maintains organisms requiring a CO2-rich environment?

Transgrow

32
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What transport system is specifically designed for gonococcal specimens?

JEMBEC (John E. Martin Biological Environmental Chamber)

33
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What does the anticoagulant abbreviation SPS stand for?

Sodium Polyanethol Sulfonate

34
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What does the abbreviation CSF stand for?

Cerebrospinal Fluid

35
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What does the abbreviation AFB stand for?

Acid-Fast Bacilli

36
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What does the abbreviation BAL stand for?

Bronchoalveolar Lavage

37
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Which anticoagulant is routinely used in blood culture bottles?

Sodium Polyanethol Sulfonate (SPS)

38
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How does SPS assist bacterial survival in blood cultures regarding host immunity?

Inhibits phagocytosis and complement activity

39
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How does SPS counteract antimicrobial and plasma activities in blood culture?

Neutralizes aminoglycosides and the bactericidal effect of plasma

40
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Which specific organisms can be inhibited by the anticoagulant SPS?

N. gonorrhoeae, N. meningitidis, Gardnerella vaginalis, Streptobacillus moniliformis, and Peptostreptococcus anaerobius

41
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Which anticoagulant is used for viral cultures and isolation of Mycobacterium spp. from blood?

Heparin

42
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Which two anticoagulants should NOT be used for routine microbiology specimens?

Citrate and EDTA

43
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What does the abbreviation EDTA stand for?

Ethylenediaminetetraacetic Acid

44
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When is the optimal time to draw blood cultures relative to patient symptoms?

Just before an anticipated temperature rise

45
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What is the routine recommended number of blood culture sets to collect?

2–4 sets

46
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How many separate blood cultures should be collected over 2 days for fever of unknown origin?

4 separate cultures

47
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What two bottle atmosphere types must be included in a blood culture set?

Aerobic and anaerobic bottles

48
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What temperature and duration are standard for routine blood culture incubation?

35oC35^\text{o}\text{C} for 7 days

49
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How long may blood cultures be incubated if endocarditis, brucellosis, or fungemia is suspected?

2–4 weeks

50
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What visual signs in blood culture bottles indicate bacterial growth?

Hemolysis, gas bubbles, turbidity, or colony formation

51
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Which blood processing method utilizes cell lysis and centrifugation to concentrate organisms?

Lysis-centrifugation / Isolator

52
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Which automated blood culture system detects bacterial growth using electrical impedance?

BACTOMETER

53
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Which automated blood culture system detects microbial growth via CO2 metabolism?

BACTEC

54
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From what anatomical site and procedure is CSF collected?

Lumbar subarachnoid space by lumbar puncture

55
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Which sequentially numbered CSF tube is designated for microbiology?

Tube 2

56
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What testing is performed on CSF Tube 1?

Chemical and serologic testing

57
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What testing is performed on CSF Tube 3?

Cell count

58
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Which fraction of centrifuged CSF is used to prepare smears and inoculate culture media?

Sediment

59
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What serologic methods are listed for rapid antigen detection in CSF?

Counter-current immune electrophoresis, coagglutination (PHADEBACT), and latex agglutination

60
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Which enrichment broths are used for CSF culture?

TSB or THIO

61
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Which agar plate is used to isolate Gram-positive cocci from CSF?

BAP (Blood Agar Plate)

62
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Which agar plate is used to isolate Gram-negative cocci from CSF?

CAP (Chocolate Agar Plate)

63
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Which culture media are used to isolate Gram-negative bacilli from CSF?

EMB (Eosin Methylene Blue agar) / MAC (MacConkey agar)

64
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From which anatomical areas should a throat swab for Streptococcus pyogenes be collected?

Posterior pharynx, tonsils, and areas of purulence/inflammation/ulceration

65
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What sheep blood-enriched agar is specified for isolating S. pyogenes from throat swabs?

Soybean-Casein Digest Agar with 5% sheep blood

66
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Which antibiotic disk is used in the identification workup of S. pyogenes?

Bacitracin disk

67
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What are the incubation conditions for S. pyogenes throat cultures?

35oC35^\text{o}\text{C} for 18–24 hours

68
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What is the main clinical diagnostic utility of a nasopharyngeal swab?

Detecting nasopharyngeal carriers and viral/bacterial pathogens

69
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Which organism causes whooping cough?

Bordetella pertussis

70
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Which selective media are used to isolate Bordetella pertussis?

Charcoal Cephalexin Medium or Bordet-Gengou

71
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Which culture media are used for Corynebacterium diphtheriae isolation?

Loeffler agar slant with cystine-tellurite

72
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Which selective media are used for N. gonorrhoeae and N. meningitidis isolation?

Modified Thayer-Martin or Martin-Lewis

73
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Why is a first-morning sputum specimen preferred over random samples?

Because respiratory secretions accumulate overnight

74
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How many consecutive early-morning sputum samples should be collected for optimal diagnostic yield?

2–3 specimens

75
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Which standard stains are used for direct microscopic examination of sputum?

Gram stain and AFB stain

76
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Which routine agar media are used for respiratory sputum culture?

MAC, BAP, and CAP

77
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How should specimens for anaerobic respiratory culture ideally be obtained?

Percutaneous aspiration or protected brush

78
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What is the recommended sample size for a stool culture specimen?

Walnut-sized specimen

79
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Within what time frame should an unpreserved stool specimen be delivered to the lab?

Within 1 hour

80
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What infection is suspected when clumps of Gram-positive cocci are observed in direct stool examination?

Staphylococcal infection

81
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Which organisms are suggested by thin, comma-shaped Gram-negative bacilli in stool?

Campylobacter or Vibrio

82
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Which organism is suggested by finding large numbers of large/thin Gram-positive bacilli in stool?

Clostridioides difficile (C. difficile)

83
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Which direct stain is used on stool specimens to detect Cryptosporidium and Mycobacteria?

AFB stain

84
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Which agar media are used for routine isolation of Salmonella and Shigella from stool?

HEA, XLD, or SSA

85
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Which specific media are listed for isolated culture of Salmonella?

Brilliant Green or Bismuth Sulfite

86
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Which selective medium is used for Campylobacter isolation?

Campy-Blood agar

87
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Which selective medium is used for Vibrio cholerae?

TCBS (Thiosulfate-Citrate-Bile Salts-Sucrose agar)

88
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Which selective medium is used for Yersinia enterocolitica?

CIN (Cefsulodin-Irgasan-Novobiocin agar)

89
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Which selective medium is used for Clostridioides difficile isolation?

CCFA (Cycloserine-Cefoxitin-Fructose Agar)

90
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Which enrichment broths are used for isolating enteric pathogens from stool?

Selenite F, Hajna GN, and Tetrathionate

91
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What is the preferred gastric specimen type for pediatric patients and AFB studies?

Gastric aspirate

92
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Within what time frame must a gastric aspirate be neutralized?

Within 1 hour

93
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What is the preferred specimen for diagnosing Helicobacter pylori infection?

Gastric biopsy

94
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How far past the anal sphincter should a rectal swab be inserted?

Approximately 2.5 cm

95
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Which non-invasive urine specimen is standard for routine bacterial culture?

Clean-catch midstream urine

96
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What invasive collection methods exist for urine culture?

Suprapubic aspiration, straight catheterization, and Foley catheter

97
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Within what time frame should unpreserved urine be processed for culture?

Within 2 hours

98
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If processing is delayed, at what temperature and duration may urine be refrigerated?

4oC4^\text{o}\text{C} for up to 24 hours

99
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What is the simplest and fastest method to screen uncentrifuged urine for significant bacteriuria?

Gram stain

100
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Finding 1 organism per oil-immersion field in uncentrifuged urine correlates to what colony count?

More than 105 CFU/mL10^5\text{ CFU/mL}