Eyes & Vision – Health Data Collection

Question-and-Answer flashcards covering anatomy, physiology, assessment, cultural considerations, disorders, risk factors, and abnormal findings of the eyes and vision.

What opening in the center of the iris controls the amount of light entering the eye?

The pupil.

Which tough, white, outer layer of the eye is visible around the iris?

The sclera.

Name the thin movable folds that protect the anterior eye and distribute tears.

The upper and lower eyelids.

What is the tiny pink nodule located at the medial canthus of the eye?

The caruncle.

Which structure drains tears from the eye surface into the nose?

The nasolacrimal duct.

What gland produces tears in the superior-lateral orbit?

The lacrimal gland.

Give the three cranial nerves that innervate the extra-ocular muscles.

Cranial nerves III (Oculomotor), IV (Trochlear), and VI (Abducens).

Which extra-ocular muscle is responsible for lateral movement of the eyeball?

The lateral rectus muscle (CN VI).

What central retinal structure provides the sharpest vision?

The fovea centralis within the macula.

What circular, yellow-orange area on fundoscopic exam marks the entry of the optic nerve?

The optic disc.

Define refraction in the physiology of vision.

The bending of light rays so they focus on the retina.

Where do retinal nerve fibers partially cross to the opposite cerebral hemisphere?

At the optic chiasm.

Which involuntary blink occurs when the cornea is touched or a foreign body approaches?

The corneal reflex.

What term describes pupillary constriction in the eye directly exposed to bright light?

Direct pupillary light reflex.

List the three components of the accommodation response.

Lens curvature increases, pupils constrict, and eyes converge.

Which iris colors are generally more common closer to the equator?

Darker brown eyes.

In the U.S., which two ethnic groups have the poorest corrected visual acuity?

Japanese Americans and Chinese Americans.

What age-related loss of near focusing ability typically begins after 45 years?

Presbyopia.

Name the outward rolling of the eyelid margin that is common in older adults.

Ectropion.

Which yellowish nodules that form on the bulbar conjunctiva are called __?

Pingueculae.

What subjective symptom describes seeing floating spots in the visual field?

Floaters.

Which home chart helps patients detect early macular degeneration changes?

The Amsler chart.

Which chart is most often used to assess distance visual acuity?

The Snellen chart (or E chart).

What near-vision tool screens for presbyopia in clients over 40?

A handheld Jaeger card or newsprint.

Which test compares the client’s peripheral vision with the examiner’s?

The confrontation test.

What phrase summarizes normal pupil findings: Pupils Equal, Round, Reactive to Light, and ?

Accommodate (PERRLA).

During ophthalmoscopy, what retinal vessels are brighter red and narrower?

The retinal arteries.

List three ocular findings that constitute an eye-care emergency (eye trauma).

Perforated globe, blood in eye, and irregular or fixed pupil (others include foreign body, white/hazy cornea, swollen lid).

What group of disorders is characterized by optic-nerve damage often from elevated intraocular pressure?

Glaucoma.

Which form of glaucoma presents with sudden eye pain, halos, and nausea?

Acute angle-closure glaucoma.

At what minimum frequency should individuals aged 65+ be screened for glaucoma?

Every 6 to 12 months.

Give two strong risk factors for open-angle glaucoma.

High intraocular pressure and family history (others: age ≥40 for African Americans, thin cornea, suspicious optic nerve).

What progressive retinal disorder leads to central vision loss in older adults?

Age-related macular degeneration (AMD).

Differentiate wet versus dry macular degeneration.

Wet involves neovascularization and leakage; dry involves gradual atrophy and drusen deposition.

Name three modifiable risk factors for macular degeneration.

Smoking, hypertension, and obesity (others: high-fat diet, prolonged sun exposure).

Which lens clouding condition is the leading cause of blindness worldwide?

Cataracts.

List two classic symptoms of cataracts besides cloudy lens appearance.

Poor night vision and seeing halos around lights (others: faded colors, double vision in one eye).

Identify three risk factors for cataract development.

Advancing age, diabetes, and excessive sunlight exposure (others: smoking, steroids, alcohol, hypertension).

What refractive error describes nearsightedness?

Myopia.

Which extra-ocular muscle disorder involves inward deviation of one eye?

Esotropia (a form of strabismus).

Name the eyelid droop that can obscure part of the pupil.

Ptosis.

What inflammatory condition of the eyelid margins often presents with crusts and irritation?

Blepharitis.

Which pupil abnormality indicates unequal pupil sizes?

Anisocoria.

Define miosis.

Pupillary constriction (usually <2 mm).

What visual-field defect results from damage to one optic nerve before the chiasm?

Monocular visual loss.

Swelling of the optic disc due to increased intracranial pressure is called .

Papilledema.

Which pale optic disc condition indicates nerve-fiber loss?

Optic atrophy.

What white, fluffy retinal lesions are associated with hypertension or diabetes?

Cotton-wool patches.

What two descriptive shapes categorize retinal hemorrhages?

Flame-shaped (superficial) and dot/blot (deep).

In cultural variations, what ocular feature is slightly larger in African Americans?

The optic disc.

Which common benign scleral finding in darker-skinned individuals may mimic jaundice?

Yellowish or pigmented scleral freckles (not true jaundice).

What is entropion?

Inward turning of the eyelid margin.

Which corneal infection manifests as a painful, localized swelling of a Meibomian gland?

A chalazion (if non-infected) or hordeolum/stye (if infected).

Define exophthalmos.

Forward protrusion of the eyeball, often seen in Graves disease.

What is the purpose of the cover-uncover test?

To detect latent strabismus (phoria) or ocular misalignment.

Which diagnostic positions test assesses extra-ocular muscle function in six cardinal fields?

The cardinal fields of gaze (or diagnostic positions) test.

What equipment is essential to visualize internal ocular structures such as the retina?

An ophthalmoscope.

Why must the examiner warn clients about close proximity during ophthalmoscopy?

Because the clinician must be very near the client’s face to visualize the retina.

What does the acronym EOMs stand for in an eye assessment?

Extra-ocular muscles (or movements).

Which test assesses parallel alignment of the eyes by shining a light on the corneas?

The corneal light reflex (Hirschberg) test.

Name two eye conditions for which corticosteroid use is a potential risk factor.

Open-angle glaucoma and cataracts.

What is the significance of ‘arcus senilis’ in the older adult eye?

A gray-white arc at the corneal margin; usually benign age-related lipid deposition.