Urinalysis Quizzes 1-4

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40 Terms

1
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The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) recommends that universal precautions be followed when encountering:

C. All body fluid specimens

B. Patients who are infected with blood-borne pathogens

A. Specimens containing visible blood

D. Specimens that may produce aerosols

A. Specimens containing visible blood

2
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A urine specimen received in the laboratory is leaking in a transport bag. What is the next course of action?

B. It should be rejected.

C. It should be processed with no special handling.

D. It should be poured into a clean container. A. It should be relabeled.

B. It should be rejected.

3
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Which is not a disadvantage of performing the manual microscopic analysis?

D. Time saving

A. Centrifugation

B. Standardization

C. Variability

D. Time saving

4
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Plexiglas shields are used in the laboratory when urine tube specimens are being:

B. Uncapped for analysis

D. Observed for color characteristics

A. Sorted according to laboratory

C. Centrifuged for analysis

B. Uncapped for analysis

5
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What does a fully automated analyzer provide that a semiautomated analyzer does not?

C. Minimal specimen handling

D. Ease of use

A. Specific gravity

B. Chemical analysis

C. Minimal specimen handling

6
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You arrive to work in the clinical laboratory with a small cut on your hand. Your supervisor removes you from specimen collection (phlebotomy) duties for the day, citing chain of infection protocols. Why is your supervisor concerned about the cut on your hand?

B. Because you are going to have to wear a bandage all day long.

C. Because you have a point of entry that could expose you to infectious agents.

A. Because you will not have the mobility in your hand to properly collect blood.

D. Because you are going to be an active transmitter of infection onto general surfaces.

C. Because you have a point of entry that could expose you to infectious agents

7
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The principle of reflectance photometry is:

D. A light-emitting diode for a specific wavelength to measure color

C. Enzymes utilizing chemical pads to generate light to measure color

B. Electrical current that causes a change in electrical resistance to measure color

A. Laser light that causes a deflection of the light beam to measure color

D. A light-emitting diode for a specific wavelength to measure color

8
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Proper hand washing includes all of the following procedures except:

D. Using a paper towel to turn water faucet on

B. Using warm water

C. Rinsing hands in a downward position

A. Rubbing to create a lather

D. Using a paper towel to turn on the water faucet

9
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Centrifuging an uncapped tube of urine is most likely to produce a/an:

C. Unbalancing

D. Aerosol

B. Broken tube

A. Electrical shock

D. Aerosol

10
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Which of the following urine elements if flagged by automated microscopy would need to be confirmed by a manual examination?

B. White blood cells

C. Crystals

A. Red blood cells

D. Bacteria

C. crystals

11
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John White donates one of his two healthy kidneys to his twin brother. His glomerular filtration rate can be expected to:

A. Decrease by 50%

D. Remain within a normal range

C. Decrease gradually over 1 year

B. Increase by 50%

D. Remain within a normal range

12
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To enhance the excretion of hydrogen ions, ammonia is produced by the cells of the:

C. Distal convoluted tubule

B. Loop of Henle

D. Collecting duct

A. Proximal convoluted tubule

A. Proximal convoluted tubule

13
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Kidneys with impaired production of ammonia will consistently produce urine with a:

D. Low volume

A. High pH

C. Low pH

B. High volume

A. High pH

14
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All of the following are endogenous clearance test substances except:

D. Beta2 microglobulin

A. Urea

B. Creatinine

C. Inulin

C. Inulin

15
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If a substance is completely filtered by the glomerulus and then completely reabsorbed by the tubules, the clearance of that substance will be:

A. Falsely decreased

B. Falsely increased

C. Normal

D. Zero

D. Zero

16
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The renal function that is most frequently the first affected by early renal disease is:

C. Tubular reabsorption

A. Renal blood flow

B. Glomerular filtration

D. Tubular secretion

C. Tubular reabsorption

17
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For accurate evaluation of renal tubular concentrating ability, patient preparation should include:

D. Abstaining from all medications

A. Fasting

B. Fluid deprivation

C. Increased hydration

B. Fluid deprivation

18
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<p>Calculate the creatinine clearance for a patient of average size from the following data: Urine volume: 720 mL for 12 hours Urine creatinine: 120 mg/dL Serum creatinine: 1.5 mg/dL </p><p></p><p> C. 100 mL/min </p><p>A. 60 mL/min </p><p>B. 80 mL/min </p><p>D. 120 mL/min</p>

Calculate the creatinine clearance for a patient of average size from the following data: Urine volume: 720 mL for 12 hours Urine creatinine: 120 mg/dL Serum creatinine: 1.5 mg/dL

C. 100 mL/min

A. 60 mL/min

B. 80 mL/min

D. 120 mL/min

B. 80 mL/min

19
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Measurement of urine osmolality is a more accurate measure of renal concentrating ability than specific gravity because

A. Osmolality is measured by instrumentation

D. Specific gravity measures only urea and glucose molecules

C. Osmolality is influenced equally by small and large molecules

B. Specific gravity is not influenced by urea and glucose molecules

C. Osmolality is influenced equally by small and large molecules

20
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Substances that can interfere with serum osmolality readings include all of the following except:

A. Lipids

D. Sodium

B. Lactic acid

C. Ethanol

D. Sodium

21
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What is the clinical importance of bilirubin in urine?

Early sign of liver disease

Sign of renal tubular damage

Marker of dehydration

Sign of UTI

Early sign of liver disease

22
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Which urine constituent is measured by the pseudoperoxidase activity of hemoglobin?

Blood

Glucose Blood

Bilirubin

Nitrite

Blood

23
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If specific gravity is consistently around 1.010, what condition does this suggest?

Dehydration

Loss of kidney concentrating ability

Normal hydration

Diabetes mellitus

Loss of kidney concentrating ability

24
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A positive Clinitest but negative glucose oxidase strip result suggests:

High vitamin C interference

Bacterial contamination

Presence of non-glucose reducing sugars (e.g., galactose)

False positive glucose oxidase test

Presence of non-glucose reducing sugars (e.g., galactose)

25
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Which confirmatory test is used for bilirubin?

Acetest

Ictotest

Clinitest

SSA test

Ictotest

26
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Which reagent strip test uses the “protein error of indicators” principle?

Protein

Glucose

Specific gravity

Bilirubin

Protein

27
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Which protein is most clinically significant in proteinuria?

Myoglobin

Bence Jones protein

Globulins

Albumin

Albumin

28
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Which strip test can show a “speckled” color pattern due to intact red blood cells?

Blood strip test.

29
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Which ketone body is present in the highest concentration during ketosis?

β-hydroxybutyrate

Acetoacetic acid

All equal

Acetone

β-hydroxybutyrate

30
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What color change indicates a positive nitrite test on reagent strips?

Blue to violet

Yellow to green

White to pink

Orange to brown

White to pink

31
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A diabetic patient has glycosuria but a normal blood glucose. What condition might this indicate?

Gestational diabetes

Fanconi syndrome

Renal glycosuria

Cystitis

Renal glycosuria

32
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A patient’s dipstick shows trace protein but the SSA test is strongly positive. What does this suggest?

False negative dipstick

Improper storage of strips

Presence of non-albumin proteins

False positive SSA test

Presence of non-albumin proteins.

33
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What is the main reagent used in ketone reagent strip testing?

Diazonium salt

Sodium nitroprusside

Bromthymol blue

Ehrlich's reagent

Sodium nitroprusside

34
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A sample tests positive for bilirubin on the strip, but negative with Ictotest. What does this indicate?

True bilirubinuria

Both tests invalid

False positive dipstick (interference)

False negative Ictotest

False positive dipstick (interference)

35
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A patient has high urine urobilinogen but negative bilirubin. What is the most likely condition?

Bile duct obstruction

Hepatitis

Renal tubular damage

Hemolytic disorder

Hemolytic disorder

36
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What is the normal pH range of urine?

5.5-10.0

6.5-9.5

3.0-6.0

4.5-8.0

4.5-8.0

37
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A child’s urine tests positive on Clinitest but negative on dipstick glucose. What condition should be suspected?

Fanconi syndrome

Multiple myeloma

Galactosemia

Diabetes mellitus

Galactosemia

38
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The glucose oxidase strip test is specific for which substance?

All reducing sugars

Fructose

Glucose

Galactose

Glucose

39
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A urine strip shows positive leukocyte esterase and nitrite. What condition is most likely?

Hemolysis

UTI

Renal glycosuria

Ketoacidosis

UTI

40
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A urine specimen has a pH of 9.0 and high bacteria growth. What is the most likely cause?

Glomerular damage

Improper preservation of the sample

False negative protein result

Alkaline diet only

Improper preservation of the sample