N10-009 CompTIA Network+ Exam with complete accurate questions and answers ( 2025-2026 latest release )

A network administrator's device is experiencing severe Wi-Fi interference within the corporate headquarters causing the device to constantly drop off the network.

Which of the following is most likely the cause of the issue?

A. Too much wireless reflection

B. Too much wireless absorption

C. Too many wireless repeaters

D. Too many client connections

Answer: A

Explanation:

Severe Wi-Fi interference within a corporate headquarters causing devices to constantly drop off the network is most likely due to too much wireless reflection. Wireless reflection occurs when Wi-Fi signals bounce off surfaces like walls, metal, or glass, causing multipath interference. This can lead to poor signal quality and frequent disconnections. Other causes like wireless absorption, too many repeaters, or too many client connections can also affect Wi-Fi performance, but excessive reflection is a common culprit in environments with many reflective surfaces.

Reference: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives - Wireless Networks section.

A company wants to implement data loss prevention by restricting user access to social media platforms and personal cloud storage on workstations.

Which of the following types of filtering should the company deploy to achieve these goals?

A. Port

B. DNS

C. MAC

D. Content

Answer: D

Explanation:

To implement data loss prevention (DLP) and restrict user access to social media platforms and personal cloud storage, the company should deploy content filtering. Content filtering examines the data being transmitted over the network and can block specific types of content or websites based on predefined policies. This type of filtering is effective in preventing access to specific web services and ensuring that sensitive information does not leave the network through unauthorized channels. Port, DNS, and MAC filtering serve different purposes and are not as effective for DLP in this context.

Reference: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives - Network Security section.

A network administrator needs to set up a multicast network for audio and video broadcasting.

Which of the following networks would be the most appropriate for this application?

A. 172.16.0.0/24

B. 192.168.0.0/24

C. 224.0.0.0/24

D. 240.0.0.0/24

Answer: C

Explanation:

The address range 224.0.0.0/24 falls within the Class D IP address range (224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255), which is reserved for multicast traffic. Multicast addresses are used for the delivery of information to multiple destinations simultaneously, making them ideal for applications like audio and video broadcasting. The other options (172.16.0.0/24, 192.168.0.0/24, and 240.0.0.0/24) are not suitable for multicast as they are within different IP ranges used for other purposes (private addressing and future use, respectively).

Reference: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives - IP Addressing section.

A network administrator is configuring a new switch and wants to ensure that only assigned devices can connect to the switch.

Which of the following should the administrator do?

A. Configure ACLs.

B. Implement a captive portal.

C. Enable port security.

D. Disable unnecessary services.

Answer: C

Explanation:

To ensure that only assigned devices can connect to a switch, the network administrator should enable port security. Port security restricts port access based on MAC addresses, allowing only pre-configured devices to connect to the network. This helps prevent unauthorized devices from gaining access to the network. Other options like configuring ACLs, implementing a captive portal, or disabling unnecessary services serve different security purposes and do not directly restrict physical port access based on device identity.

Reference: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives - Network Security section.

A customer needs six usable IP addresses.

Which of the following best meets this requirement?

A. 255.255.255.128

B. 255.255.255.192

C. 255.255.255.224

D. 255.255.255.240

Answer: D

Explanation:

To meet the requirement of six usable IP addresses, the subnet mask 255.255.255.240 (also represented as /28) is the best fit. A /28 subnet provides 16 total IP addresses, out of which 14 are usable (the first address is the network address, and the last address is the broadcast address). This meets and exceeds the requirement for six usable IP addresses, ensuring there are enough addresses for future expansion if needed. The other options provide either too few or too many addresses for this specific requirement.

Reference: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives - IP Addressing section.

Which of the following panels would be best to facilitate a central termination point for all network cables on the floor of a company building?

A. Patch

B. UPS

C. MDF

D. Rack

Answer: A

Explanation:

A patch panel is the best choice to facilitate a central termination point for all network cables on the floor of a company building. Patch panels are used to manage and organize multiple network cables, providing a central point where all cables converge. This setup allows for easy management, troubleshooting, and reconfiguration of network connections. The other options, such as UPS (Uninterruptible Power Supply), MDF (Main Distribution Frame), and rack, serve different purposes and are not specifically designed for the central termination of network cables.

Reference: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives - Network Installation section.

A network engineer wants to implement a new IDS between the switch and a router connected to the LAN. The engineer does not want to introduce any latency by placing the IDS in line with the gateway. The engineer does want to ensure that the IDS sees all packets without any loss.

Which of the following is the best way for the engineer to implement the IDS?

A. Use a network tap.

B. Use Nmap software.

C. Use a protocol analyzer.

D. Use a port mirror.

Answer: D

Explanation:

To ensure that an IDS sees all packets without any loss and without introducing latency, the best approach is to use a port mirror, also known as a SPAN (Switched Port Analyzer) port. Port mirroring copies network packets seen on one switch port (or an entire VLAN) to another port where the IDS is connected. This method allows the IDS to monitor traffic passively without being in the direct path of network traffic, thus avoiding any additional latency.

Reference: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives - Network Security section.

A user connects to a corporate VPN via a web browser and is able to use TLS to access the internal financial system to input a time card.

Which of the following best describes how the VPN is being used?

A. Clientless

B. Client-to-site

C. Full tunnel

D. Site-to-site

Answer: A

Explanation:

The scenario describes a user connecting to a corporate VPN via a web browser using TLS to access

an internal system. This setup is best described as a "clientless" VPN. Clientless VPNs do not require a VPN client to be installed on the user's device; instead, they rely on a standard web browser to establish the connection. This method is particularly useful for providing secure, remote access to applications through a web interface without the need for additional software installations.

Reference: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives - Remote Access Methods section.

Which of the following is the most closely associated with segmenting compute resources within a single cloud account?

A. Network security group

B. laaS

C. VPC

D. Hybrid cloud

Answer: C

Explanation:

A Virtual Private Cloud (VPC) is most closely associated with segmenting compute resources within a single cloud account. A VPC allows you to define a virtual network that closely resembles a traditional network, complete with subnets, route tables, and gateways. This segmentation enables the isolation of different parts of a network within a cloud environment, ensuring security and efficient resource management. VPCs are a key component in many cloud infrastructures, providing the flexibility to manage and control network settings and resources.

Reference: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives - Cloud Models section.

Which of the following steps in the troubleshooting methodology includes checking logs for recent changes?

A. Identify the problem.

B. Document the findings and outcomes.

C. Test the theory to determine cause.

D. Establish a plan of action.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Checking logs for recent changes is part of the "Identify the problem" step in the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology. This step involves gathering information, including reviewing logs and documentation, to understand what might have changed or caused the issue. This preliminary analysis is critical for forming an accurate theory about the problem.

Reference: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives - Troubleshooting section.

Which of the following cloud service models most likely requires the greatest up-front expense by the customer when migrating a data center to the cloud?

A. Infrastructure as a service

B. Software as a service

C. Platform as a service

D. Network as a service

Answer: A

Explanation:

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) typically requires the greatest up-front expense by the customer when migrating a data center to the cloud. IaaS provides virtualized computing resources over the internet, where customers rent virtual machines, storage, and networks. The customer is responsible for managing the operating systems, applications, and data. This model often necessitates significant initial investment in planning, migration, and configuring the infrastructure. In contrast, Software as a Service (SaaS) and Platform as a Service (PaaS) models usually involve lower up-front costs because they offer more managed services.

Reference: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives - Cloud Models section.

Which of the following is a characteristic of the application layer?

A. It relies upon other layers for packet delivery.

OB. It checks independently for packet loss.

C. It encrypts data in transit.

D. It performs address translation.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Introduction to OSI Model:

The OSI model is a conceptual framework used to understand network interactions in seven layers:

Physical, Data Link, Network, Transport, Session, Presentation, and Application.

Application Layer:

The application layer (Layer 7) is the topmost layer in the OSI model. It provides network services directly to end-user applications. This layer facilitates communication between software applications and lower layers of the network protocol stack.

Reliance on Other Layers:

The application layer relies on the transport layer (Layer 4) for data transfer across the network. The transport layer ensures reliable data delivery through protocols like TCP and UDP.

The network layer (Layer 3) is responsible for routing packets to their destination. The data link layer (Layer 2) handles node-to-node data transfer and error detection. The physical layer (Layer 1) deals with the physical connection between devices.