Male Reproductive Conditions - NCLEX-Style Practice Questions

A male patient is diagnosed with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). Which of the following symptoms is most characteristic of this condition?

a. Hematuria and dysuria

b. Decreased urinary stream and nocturia

c. Fever and chills

d. Scrotal swelling and pain

b. Decreased urinary stream and nocturia

Rationale: BPH leads to compression of the urethra, causing weak urinary stream, difficulty starting urination, nocturia, and incomplete bladder emptying.

The nurse is educating a patient about finasteride for BPH. Which statement indicates a need for further teaching?

a. "I may experience a decreased libido while taking this medication."

b. "It may take several months for this medication to relieve my symptoms."

c. "I should not donate blood while taking this medication."

d. "This medication will cure my BPH permanently."

d. "This medication will cure my BPH permanently."

Rationale: Finasteride reduces prostate size but does not cure BPH. The patient must continue taking it to maintain symptom relief.

Which post-operative instruction should the nurse provide to a patient who has undergone a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP)?

a. "You should avoid drinking fluids for the next 24 hours."

b. "Expect to see large blood clots in your urine for several weeks."

c. "Avoid straining during bowel movements to prevent bleeding."

d. "You may resume sexual activity immediately after discharge."

c. "Avoid straining during bowel movements to prevent bleeding."

Rationale: Straining increases intra-abdominal pressure, leading to bleeding at the surgical site. Stool softeners are recommended.

A patient is receiving continuous bladder irrigation (CBI) following a TURP. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

a. Light pink urine output

b. Patient reports feeling the urge to void

c. Catheter drainage is bright red with large clots

d. Occasional bladder spasms

c. Catheter drainage is bright red with large clots

Rationale: Bright red urine with clots suggests active bleeding, which requires immediate assessment and possible adjustment of CBI rate or provider notification.

A patient presents with sudden severe testicular pain and swelling. What is the nurse’s priority action?

a. Apply ice packs and administer ibuprofen

b. Prepare the patient for emergency surgery

c. Obtain a urine sample for culture

d. Encourage bed rest and scrotal support

b. Prepare the patient for emergency surgery

Rationale: Sudden, severe testicular pain is indicative of testicular torsion, a surgical emergency requiring immediate intervention to restore blood flow.

Which patient statement indicates the need for further education about testicular self-examination?

a. "I should perform the exam during or right after a warm shower."

b. "I should examine one testicle at a time, using both hands."

c. "It is normal if I feel a lump in my testicle."

d. "If I notice any changes, I should report them to my doctor."

c. "It is normal if I feel a lump in my testicle."

Rationale: Any lump or abnormal finding should be reported to a healthcare provider, as it may indicate testicular cancer.

Which of the following is a risk factor for prostate cancer?

a. High-fiber diet

b. African American ethnicity

c. Low-fat diet

d. History of testicular torsion

b. African American ethnicity

Rationale: African American men have a higher incidence of prostate cancer and often present with more aggressive forms of the disease.

A patient with erectile dysfunction is prescribed sildenafil (Viagra). Which instruction should the nurse provide?

a. "Take this medication with a high-fat meal for better absorption."

b. "Do not take this medication if you are using nitrates."

c. "Expect an erection to last at least 6 hours."

d. "You may take this medication as often as needed."

b. "Do not take this medication if you are using nitrates."

Rationale: Sildenafil and nitrates can cause severe hypotension when taken together, leading to life-threatening consequences.

The nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with epididymitis. Which intervention is appropriate?

a. Apply cold packs to the scrotum

b. Encourage the patient to avoid antibiotics

c. Advise the patient to avoid fluid intake

d. Recommend frequent lifting of heavy objects

a. Apply cold packs to the scrotum

Rationale: Cold packs can help reduce inflammation and pain associated with epididymitis.

A patient with prostate cancer is undergoing a radical prostatectomy. Which post-operative complication is most concerning?

a. Urinary incontinence

b. Erectile dysfunction

c. Deep vein thrombosis

d. Perineal pain

c. Deep vein thrombosis

Rationale: Surgery increases the risk of DVT due to immobility and changes in circulation. Preventative measures such as early ambulation and anticoagulants are essential.

A patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is prescribed tamsulosin. What should the nurse include in patient teaching?

a. "Take this medication on an empty stomach to increase absorption."

b. "You may experience dizziness when standing up quickly."

c. "This medication will permanently shrink your prostate."

d. "You should stop this medication if your symptoms improve."

b. "You may experience dizziness when standing up quickly."

Rationale: Tamsulosin is an alpha-blocker that can cause orthostatic hypotension, leading to dizziness when changing positions.

The nurse is assessing a patient with acute prostatitis. Which symptom is most likely to be reported?

a. Scrotal swelling and severe pain

b. Painful urination and perineal discomfort

c. Blood in the semen and fever

d. Painless testicular lump

b. Painful urination and perineal discomfort

Rationale: Acute prostatitis typically presents with dysuria, perineal pain, urinary urgency, and fever.

A nurse is caring for a patient with testicular cancer undergoing chemotherapy. Which side effect should the nurse monitor for?

a. Increased libido

b. Gynecomastia

c. Hyperglycemia

d. Hypotension

b. Gynecomastia

Rationale: Some chemotherapy drugs can lead to hormonal imbalances, causing gynecomastia.

A patient is diagnosed with priapism. What is the priority intervention?

a. Apply ice packs to the groin

b. Administer pain medication and encourage fluids

c. Encourage ambulation to improve circulation

d. Administer medications that reduce penile blood flow

d. Administer medications that reduce penile blood flow

Rationale: Priapism is a prolonged erection that can cause permanent damage. Medications such as phenylephrine or aspiration of blood from the corpus cavernosum may be required.

Which symptom is most concerning in a patient post-radical prostatectomy?

a. Urinary incontinence

b. Scrotal swelling

c. Lower extremity pain and swelling

d. Decreased libido

c. Lower extremity pain and swelling

Rationale: This could indicate deep vein thrombosis (DVT), a serious post-operative complication.

A patient is diagnosed with epididymitis. Which statement by the patient requires further teaching?

a. "I should elevate my scrotum and apply ice packs to reduce swelling."

b. "I should complete my full course of antibiotics even if I feel better."

c. "I can resume sexual activity as soon as I start my antibiotics."

d. "I should avoid lifting heavy objects while recovering."

c. "I can resume sexual activity as soon as I start my antibiotics."

Rationale: Sexual activity should be avoided until the infection is completely treated to prevent transmission and recurrence.

A patient with suspected testicular torsion is admitted to the emergency department. What is the most critical nursing action?

a. Apply warm compresses to the scrotum

b. Obtain a detailed history of symptoms

c. Prepare for immediate surgical intervention

d. Encourage the patient to rest and elevate the scrotum

c. Prepare for immediate surgical intervention

Rationale: Testicular torsion is a medical emergency requiring immediate surgery to restore blood flow and prevent testicular necrosis.

The nurse is caring for a patient with suspected prostate cancer. Which diagnostic test is most commonly used to confirm the diagnosis?

a. Testicular ultrasound

b. Digital rectal exam (DRE)

c. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test

d. Prostate biopsy

d. Prostate biopsy

Rationale: A prostate biopsy is the definitive diagnostic tool for confirming prostate cancer.

A patient is diagnosed with orchitis. Which statement by the patient requires further education?

a. "I should avoid sexual contact until my symptoms resolve."

b. "I need to complete my antibiotics even if I feel better."

c. "I should apply cold compresses to reduce swelling."

d. "Orchitis is not caused by an infection and does not require treatment."

d. "Orchitis is not caused by an infection and does not require treatment."

Rationale: Orchitis is often caused by infections such as mumps or STIs, requiring treatment with antibiotics or antivirals.

The nurse is teaching a patient about vasectomy. Which statement indicates a need for further teaching?

a. "This procedure is considered permanent birth control."

b. "I will need to use another form of birth control until my semen is sperm-free."

c. "I can resume sexual activity immediately after surgery."

d. "I will still produce semen, but it will not contain sperm."

c. "I can resume sexual activity immediately after surgery."

Rationale: Patients should avoid sexual activity for at least a week and use contraception until semen analysis confirms the absence of sperm.

A patient with BPH is prescribed dutasteride. What is an important teaching point?

a. "You may stop taking this medication once symptoms improve."

b. "This medication works immediately to relieve symptoms."

c. "Pregnant women should avoid handling this medication."

d. "This medication increases testosterone production."

c. "Pregnant women should avoid handling this medication."

Rationale: Dutasteride is a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor that can be absorbed through the skin and cause fetal harm.

Which assessment finding is most concerning in a patient with testicular cancer?

a. Bilateral testicular enlargement

b. Painless, firm lump in one testicle

c. Testicular atrophy with aging

d. Scrotal rash and itching

b. Painless, firm lump in one testicle

Rationale: A painless testicular lump is a hallmark sign of testicular cancer and should be evaluated immediately.

A patient presents with sudden-onset scrotal pain and nausea. What is the nurse's priority action?

a. Perform a testicular ultrasound

b. Encourage bed rest and scrotal support

c. Administer ibuprofen and ice packs

d. Assess for the cremasteric reflex

a. Perform a testicular ultrasound

Rationale: Testicular torsion is a medical emergency that requires immediate confirmation with ultrasound and surgical intervention.

The nurse is educating a patient about vasectomy. Which statement indicates understanding?

a. "I will no longer ejaculate after the procedure."

b. "I need to use contraception until my sperm count is zero."

c. "The procedure will protect me from sexually transmitted infections."

d. "My fertility will return in a few months."

b. "I need to use contraception until my sperm count is zero."

Rationale: Sperm can remain in the reproductive tract for weeks after a vasectomy, so alternative contraception is needed.

Which of the following is a common complication following TURP?

a. Erectile dysfunction

b. Urinary retention

c. Infertility

d. Retrograde ejaculation

d. Retrograde ejaculation

Rationale: TURP can cause retrograde ejaculation, where semen enters the bladder instead of exiting through the urethra.

A patient is diagnosed with Peyronie’s disease. What symptom is expected?

a. Painful urination

b. Curved or painful erection

c. Testicular swelling

d. Scrotal discoloration

b. Curved or painful erection

Rationale: Peyronie’s disease results from fibrous plaques in the penis, causing curvature and painful erections.

A nurse is assessing a male patient with suspected infertility. Which history finding is most concerning?

a. Previous exposure to mumps

b. Consumption of high-protein diet

c. Use of multivitamins

d. History of frequent exercise

a. Previous exposure to mumps

Rationale: Mumps can cause orchitis, leading to testicular damage and infertility.

The nurse is educating a patient with a new prescription for tadalafil for erectile dysfunction. Which instruction is important?

a. "You should take this medication daily, even if you don’t plan to have sex."

b. "Avoid alcohol while taking this medication."

c. "Take this medication with food for best results."

d. "You may take nitrates safely with this medication."

b. "Avoid alcohol while taking this medication."

Rationale: Alcohol can increase the risk of hypotension when combined with tadalafil.

Which dietary change is most beneficial for a patient with prostate cancer?

a. Increased red meat consumption

b. Increased intake of cruciferous vegetables

c. High-fat dairy consumption

d. Increased processed foods

b. Increased intake of cruciferous vegetables

Rationale: Vegetables like broccoli and cauliflower contain compounds that may reduce prostate cancer risk.

A patient with prostate cancer is undergoing hormone therapy. What side effect should the nurse monitor for?

a. Increased libido

b. Breast tenderness

c. Increased muscle mass

d. Weight loss

b. Breast tenderness

Rationale: Androgen deprivation therapy can cause gynecomastia and breast tenderness.

Which patient is at highest risk for testicular cancer?

a. A 65-year-old with BPH

b. A 40-year-old with multiple sexual partners

c. A 22-year-old with cryptorchidism

d. A 55-year-old with erectile dysfunction

c. A 22-year-old with cryptorchidism

Rationale: Undescended testes (cryptorchidism) significantly increase the risk of testicular cancer.

The nurse is caring for a patient post-TURP with continuous bladder irrigation (CBI). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

a. Pink-tinged urine output

b. Catheter tubing with small clots

c. Urine output that suddenly stops

d. Patient reports urge to void

c. Urine output that suddenly stops

Rationale: Sudden cessation of urine output may indicate a catheter blockage requiring immediate intervention.

Which assessment finding suggests a potential sexually transmitted infection (STI) in a male patient?

a. Enlarged scrotum with dull pain

b. Thick yellow urethral discharge

c. Painful erection with curvature

d. Bilateral testicular atrophy

b. Thick yellow urethral discharge

Rationale: A yellow discharge is characteristic of gonorrhea, an STI that requires antibiotic treatment.

A patient with BPH is prescribed finasteride. What should the nurse include in patient education?

a. "You will see immediate relief of urinary symptoms."

b. "This medication may take months to show improvement."

c. "Finasteride is used for short-term symptom relief only."

d. "You should take this medication only at bedtime."

b. "This medication may take months to show improvement."

Rationale: Finasteride takes months to reduce prostate size and relieve urinary symptoms.

The nurse is educating a patient with prostate cancer about radiation therapy. Which side effect should be expected?

a. Increased testosterone levels

b. Infertility

c. Elevated PSA levels

d. Increased sperm production

b. Infertility

Rationale: Radiation therapy for prostate cancer can lead to infertility due to testicular damage.

A nurse is assessing a patient with suspected prostate cancer. Which symptom is most concerning?

a. Nocturia and weak urinary stream

b. Hematuria and perineal pain

c. Erectile dysfunction and low libido

d. Urinary frequency and hesitancy

b. Hematuria and perineal pain

Rationale: Hematuria and perineal pain can indicate advanced prostate cancer with potential metastasis.

A patient who underwent a prostatectomy reports urinary incontinence. What is the best intervention?

a. Use of long-term catheterization

b. Kegel exercises to strengthen pelvic muscles

c. Increased fluid restriction

d. Avoidance of ambulation

b. Kegel exercises to strengthen pelvic muscles

Rationale: Pelvic floor exercises help improve urinary control after prostate surgery.

A nurse is providing education to a patient undergoing chemotherapy for testicular cancer. What should be emphasized?

a. "You will likely experience permanent infertility."

b. "You should consider sperm banking before starting treatment."

c. "You will not experience any side effects affecting fertility."

d. "Testicular cancer never recurs after treatment."

b. "You should consider sperm banking before starting treatment."

Rationale: Chemotherapy can affect sperm production, so sperm banking should be discussed prior to treatment.

A patient is scheduled for a digital rectal exam (DRE). What is the nurse’s role in preparation?

a. Ensure the patient is NPO for 8 hours

b. Position the patient in a left side-lying position

c. Administer a laxative before the exam

d. Instruct the patient that slight discomfort is normal

d. Instruct the patient that slight discomfort is normal

Rationale: A DRE may cause mild discomfort but is necessary for assessing prostate abnormalities.

Which of the following is a hallmark sign of Peyronie’s disease?

a. Painful urination

b. Curved, painful erection

c. Testicular swelling

d. Persistent urinary frequency

b. Curved, painful erection

Rationale: Peyronie’s disease is caused by fibrous scar tissue leading to penile curvature.

Which patient is at highest risk for erectile dysfunction (ED)?

a. A 20-year-old male with a history of STIs

b. A 45-year-old male with hypertension and diabetes

c. A 55-year-old male who exercises regularly

d. A 35-year-old male who eats a high-protein diet

b. A 45-year-old male with hypertension and diabetes

Rationale: Hypertension and diabetes can cause vascular and neurological damage, leading to ED.

The nurse is educating a patient with epididymitis. What should be included in discharge teaching?

a. "Avoid antibiotics unless symptoms worsen."

b. "Apply ice packs and take prescribed antibiotics."

c. "Increase physical activity to relieve discomfort."

d. "Scrotal swelling should resolve within 12 hours."

b. "Apply ice packs and take prescribed antibiotics."

Rationale: Epididymitis is commonly treated with antibiotics, anti-inflammatories, and supportive care such as ice packs.

A patient reports a painless testicular lump. What is the priority nursing action?

a. Reassure the patient it is likely benign

b. Refer the patient for an ultrasound

c. Encourage warm compresses for pain relief

d. Recommend reducing caffeine intake

b. Refer the patient for an ultrasound

Rationale: A painless testicular lump may indicate testicular cancer and requires further evaluation.

What is the priority nursing assessment for a patient receiving tadalafil (Cialis)?

a. Blood pressure monitoring

b. Respiratory rate

c. White blood cell count

d. Liver function tests

a. Blood pressure monitoring

Rationale: Tadalafil can cause hypotension, particularly when used with nitrates.

A patient with suspected STI presents with dysuria and purulent urethral discharge. Which infection is most likely?

a. Gonorrhea

b. Syphilis

c. Genital herpes

d. Chlamydia

a. Gonorrhea

Rationale: Gonorrhea commonly presents with painful urination and purulent discharge.

The nurse is educating a patient about testicular self-examination. Which statement indicates correct understanding?

a. "I should perform the exam while lying down."

b. "A lump in my testicle is normal and not a concern."

c. "I should perform the exam once a month after a warm shower."

d. "Testicular self-exams are only necessary if I feel pain."

c. "I should perform the exam once a month after a warm shower."

Rationale: A warm shower relaxes the scrotum, making it easier to detect abnormalities.

A patient with prostate cancer is undergoing androgen deprivation therapy. What is a potential side effect?

a. Increased libido

b. Muscle gain

c. Osteoporosis

d. High testosterone levels

c. Osteoporosis

Rationale: Androgen deprivation reduces testosterone, which can lead to bone density loss.

The nurse is caring for a post-vasectomy patient. What statement indicates the need for further education?

a. "I will use contraception until my doctor confirms my sperm count is zero."

b. "I can resume heavy lifting immediately after the procedure."

c. "Mild swelling and bruising are expected."

d. "Vasectomy does not protect against STIs."

b. "I can resume heavy lifting immediately after the procedure."

Rationale: Strenuous activity should be avoided for at least a week after vasectomy.

A patient with advanced prostate cancer is experiencing severe bone pain. What is the most appropriate intervention?

a. Apply heat packs to the affected area

b. Administer opioid analgesics as prescribed

c. Encourage light exercise to relieve pain

d. Restrict fluid intake

b. Administer opioid analgesics as prescribed

Rationale: Advanced prostate cancer can metastasize to bones, causing severe pain requiring strong analgesics.

A nurse is caring for a patient with suspected syphilis. Which diagnostic test is most commonly used?

a. PSA test

b. VDRL test

c. Urinalysis

d. Digital rectal exam

b. VDRL test

Rationale: The VDRL test detects syphilis by identifying antibodies in the blood.

A patient with a history of untreated syphilis is now experiencing dementia and ataxia. What stage of syphilis is suspected?

a. Primary

b. Secondary

c. Latent

d. Tertiary

d. Tertiary

Rationale: Tertiary syphilis affects the nervous system and cardiovascular system, leading to neurological deficits like dementia and ataxia.

A male patient reports painful genital ulcers and flu-like symptoms. What infection is most likely?

a. Gonorrhea

b. Chlamydia

c. Genital herpes

d. Syphilis

c. Genital herpes

Rationale: Genital herpes (HSV-2) presents with painful vesicular lesions and flu-like symptoms.

The nurse is educating a patient with erectile dysfunction (ED). Which statement indicates the need for further teaching?

a. "Erectile dysfunction can be caused by high blood pressure."

b. "Drinking alcohol can worsen erectile dysfunction."

c. "Taking nitrates and sildenafil together is safe."

d. "Exercise and weight loss can improve ED symptoms."

c. "Taking nitrates and sildenafil together is safe."

Rationale: Combining sildenafil with nitrates can cause life-threatening hypotension.

A patient diagnosed with chlamydia asks about complications. What is the most serious complication?

a. Testicular cancer

b. Erectile dysfunction

c. Infertility

d. Prostate enlargement

c. Infertility

Rationale: Untreated chlamydia can lead to epididymitis and infertility.

The nurse is educating a patient about human papillomavirus (HPV). Which statement is correct?

a. "HPV only affects women."

b. "HPV increases the risk of penile and anal cancer."

c. "HPV is always symptomatic."

d. "HPV cannot be prevented."

b. "HPV increases the risk of penile and anal cancer."

Rationale: HPV is linked to various cancers, including penile, anal, and throat cancers in men.

The nurse is caring for a patient with epididymitis. What is an appropriate intervention?

a. Encourage heavy lifting to reduce swelling

b. Apply heat packs to the scrotum

c. Elevate the scrotum and encourage bed rest

d. Recommend tight underwear to minimize movement

c. Elevate the scrotum and encourage bed rest

Rationale: Elevating the scrotum and resting help reduce pain and inflammation.

A male patient with a history of multiple sexual partners presents with a painless genital ulcer. What condition should the nurse suspect?

a. Syphilis

b. Gonorrhea

c. Genital herpes

d. Chlamydia

a. Syphilis

Rationale: A painless chancre (ulcer) is the hallmark sign of primary syphilis.

The nurse is caring for a patient with acute prostatitis. Which symptom is expected?

a. Painless testicular lump

b. Severe perineal pain and fever

c. Curved erection with pain

d. Bilateral scrotal swelling

b. Severe perineal pain and fever

Rationale: Acute prostatitis presents with fever, perineal pain, dysuria, and difficulty urinating.

Which statement by a patient after vasectomy requires further teaching?

a. "I will need to use contraception until my doctor confirms I’m sterile."

b. "A vasectomy will completely protect me from STIs."

c. "I may have mild swelling and bruising after the procedure."

d. "Vasectomy is considered a permanent method of birth control."

b. "A vasectomy will completely protect me from STIs."

Rationale: Vasectomy prevents sperm from entering semen but does not protect against sexually transmitted infections.

A patient reports burning with urination and greenish-yellow discharge. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a. Syphilis

b. Gonorrhea

c. Chlamydia

d. HPV

b. Gonorrhea

Rationale: Gonorrhea commonly presents with dysuria and a purulent green or yellow discharge.

A patient is diagnosed with testicular cancer. What is a key risk factor?

a. History of undescended testicles

b. Previous vasectomy

c. Increased age

d. Use of tight underwear

a. History of undescended testicles

Rationale: Cryptorchidism (undescended testicles) is the most significant risk factor for testicular cancer.

Which symptom is expected in a patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?

a. Hematuria

b. Urinary retention and weak stream

c. Testicular swelling

d. Scrotal pain

b. Urinary retention and weak stream

Rationale: BPH causes obstruction of urine flow, leading to weak stream and retention.

The nurse is caring for a patient who underwent a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). What is a priority post-operative concern?

a. Retrograde ejaculation

b. Continuous bladder irrigation (CBI) maintenance

c. Erectile dysfunction

d. Perineal pain

b. Continuous bladder irrigation (CBI) maintenance

Rationale: CBI helps prevent blood clot formation in the bladder post-TURP.

A patient taking finasteride for BPH asks how the medication works. What is the best response?

a. "It increases testosterone levels."

b. "It reduces prostate size over time."

c. "It provides immediate relief of urinary symptoms."

d. "It eliminates the need for prostate surgery."

b. "It reduces prostate size over time."

Rationale: Finasteride inhibits dihydrotestosterone (DHT), leading to gradual prostate shrinkage.

A patient with advanced prostate cancer is experiencing lower back pain. What should the nurse suspect?

a. Normal aging

b. Metastasis to the bones

c. Kidney infection

d. Muscle strain

b. Metastasis to the bones

Rationale: Prostate cancer commonly metastasizes to the bones, causing pain.

The nurse is educating a patient diagnosed with orchitis. Which statement indicates understanding?

a. "This condition is caused by bacterial infections like gonorrhea."

b. "Orchitis cannot be prevented."

c. "Antibiotics will not help treat orchitis."

d. "I do not need to worry about infertility."

a. "This condition is caused by bacterial infections like gonorrhea."

Rationale: Orchitis can be caused by bacterial infections, including STIs.

A patient with a history of multiple sexual partners presents with painful urination and genital ulcers. What infection is most likely?

a. Syphilis

b. Gonorrhea

c. Genital herpes

d. Chlamydia

c. Genital herpes

Rationale: Genital herpes presents with painful ulcers and dysuria, often accompanied by flu-like symptoms.

A patient with testicular cancer is undergoing orchiectomy. What is an important post-operative consideration?

a. The patient should avoid exercise permanently.

b. The patient will experience permanent erectile dysfunction.

c. Sperm banking should be considered before surgery.

d. The patient will require long-term hormone replacement.

c. Sperm banking should be considered before surgery.

Rationale: Testicular cancer and its treatments can cause infertility, so sperm banking should be discussed beforehand.

A patient with prostatitis is being discharged with antibiotics. What instruction should the nurse include?

a. "Stop taking the antibiotics once symptoms improve."

b. "You should avoid sexual activity until the infection clears."

c. "Increase alcohol intake to relieve symptoms."

d. "Cold packs should be used to relieve pain."

b. "You should avoid sexual activity until the infection clears."

Rationale: Sexual activity should be avoided to prevent further irritation and potential transmission of infection.

A patient is diagnosed with Peyronie’s disease. What treatment option might be considered?

a. Radiation therapy

b. Testosterone replacement

c. Collagenase injections

d. Prostatectomy

c. Collagenase injections

Rationale: Collagenase injections help break down fibrous plaques causing penile curvature.

A nurse is assessing a male patient with suspected infertility. What finding is most concerning?

a. History of mumps infection

b. History of frequent exercise

c. Use of multivitamins

d. High-protein diet

a. History of mumps infection

Rationale: Mumps can lead to orchitis, which can cause testicular damage and infertility.

A patient receiving androgen deprivation therapy (ADT) for prostate cancer asks about side effects. What should the nurse include?

a. "You may experience increased muscle mass."

b. "Your risk of osteoporosis is increased."

c. "Your testosterone levels will remain the same."

d. "This treatment has no impact on your libido."

b. "Your risk of osteoporosis is increased."

Rationale: ADT decreases testosterone, which can lead to bone loss and osteoporosis.

A patient with advanced prostate cancer reports severe bone pain. What is the priority intervention?

a. Encourage bed rest

b. Apply heat packs

c. Administer opioid analgesics as prescribed

d. Increase calcium intake

c. Administer opioid analgesics as prescribed

Rationale: Bone metastases can cause severe pain, requiring strong pain management.

The nurse is caring for a patient receiving tamsulosin for BPH. What side effect should be monitored?

a. Hypertension

b. Orthostatic hypotension

c. Increased libido

d. Dry skin

b. Orthostatic hypotension

Rationale: Tamsulosin is an alpha-blocker that can cause dizziness and hypotension, especially when changing positions.

Which patient statement about HPV vaccination requires further teaching?

a. "This vaccine protects against some strains of HPV."

b. "I only need one dose of the vaccine."

c. "HPV can cause genital warts and some cancers."

d. "Both men and women can receive the vaccine."

b. "I only need one dose of the vaccine."

Rationale: The HPV vaccine requires multiple doses for full protection.

A patient is diagnosed with chlamydia. What is the recommended treatment?

a. Single-dose azithromycin

b. Long-term antiviral therapy

c. Penicillin injections

d. Antifungal medications

a. Single-dose azithromycin

Rationale: Chlamydia is commonly treated with a single dose of azithromycin or a 7-day course of doxycycline.

A patient with BPH asks about lifestyle modifications. What advice should the nurse provide?

a. "Limit fluid intake to prevent urination."

b. "Avoid caffeine and alcohol."

c. "Take testosterone supplements."

d. "Increase sodium intake."

b. "Avoid caffeine and alcohol."

Rationale: Caffeine and alcohol can irritate the bladder and worsen urinary symptoms.

A patient is prescribed sildenafil for erectile dysfunction. Which instruction should be included?

a. "Take this medication with a fatty meal for best absorption."

b. "Do not take this medication with nitrates."

c. "You can take as many doses as needed."

d. "This medication prevents sexually transmitted infections."

b. "Do not take this medication with nitrates."

Rationale: Combining sildenafil with nitrates can cause life-threatening hypotension.

A male patient reports a firm, painless lump in one testicle. What is the priority nursing action?

a. Reassure the patient that this is a normal finding.

b. Refer the patient for an ultrasound.

c. Advise the patient to monitor for pain.

d. Encourage a high-protein diet.

b. Refer the patient for an ultrasound.

Rationale: A painless testicular lump is a possible sign of testicular cancer and requires immediate evaluation.

A patient with recurrent prostatitis asks how to prevent future episodes. What is the best advice?

a. "Drink plenty of fluids to promote urination."

b. "Avoid all forms of exercise."

c. "Reduce protein intake."

d. "Use testosterone supplements."

a. "Drink plenty of fluids to promote urination."

Rationale: Increased fluid intake can help flush bacteria from the urinary tract.

A patient presents with epididymitis. Which activity should the nurse advise the patient to avoid?

a. Wearing supportive underwear

b. Using warm compresses

c. Engaging in sexual activity

d. Taking prescribed antibiotics

c. Engaging in sexual activity

Rationale: Sexual activity should be avoided until the infection is resolved to prevent worsening symptoms and transmission.

A patient with BPH is experiencing acute urinary retention. What is the priority nursing intervention?

a. Encourage fluid intake

b. Perform bladder palpation

c. Prepare for catheterization

d. Administer an alpha-blocker

c. Prepare for catheterization

Rationale: Acute urinary retention requires immediate bladder decompression through catheterization.

A male patient asks how to reduce the risk of prostate cancer. What is the best recommendation?

a. Increase intake of processed meats

b. Get regular PSA screenings

c. Take high-dose testosterone supplements

d. Avoid all forms of exercise

b. Get regular PSA screenings

Rationale: Regular PSA screenings help detect prostate cancer early, especially in high-risk patients.

A patient with a newly placed penile implant asks about post-operative care. What should the nurse include in teaching?

a. "You can resume sexual activity immediately."

b. "Avoid heavy lifting and strenuous activity for six weeks."

c. "Take high-dose testosterone supplements for better results."

d. "You should expect severe pain for months after surgery."

b. "Avoid heavy lifting and strenuous activity for six weeks."

Rationale: Patients should avoid strenuous activities to prevent complications and allow proper healing.

The nurse is assessing a patient with testicular torsion. What is the expected finding?

a. Gradual onset of pain

b. Relief of pain when elevating the scrotum

c. Absence of the cremasteric reflex

d. Presence of bilateral testicular swelling

c. Absence of the cremasteric reflex

Rationale: Testicular torsion is characterized by the absence of the cremasteric reflex and requires immediate surgery.

Which patient is at highest risk for developing BPH?

a. A 22-year-old athlete

b. A 45-year-old with a history of STIs

c. A 55-year-old with a sedentary lifestyle

d. A 75-year-old male with obesity

d. A 75-year-old male with obesity

Rationale: BPH is most common in older males, especially those with sedentary lifestyles and obesity.

A patient with syphilis is prescribed penicillin. What reaction should the nurse monitor for after the first dose?

a. Hypertension and tachycardia

b. Fever, chills, and myalgia

c. Increased libido

d. Severe muscle weakness

b. Fever, chills, and myalgia

Rationale: The Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction can occur after the first dose of penicillin due to rapid bacterial destruction.

A nurse is teaching about lifestyle modifications for erectile dysfunction (ED). Which statement by the patient indicates correct understanding?

a. "Smoking has no effect on ED."

b. "Regular exercise can help improve ED symptoms."

c. "High alcohol intake can improve ED."

d. "ED is only caused by psychological factors."

b. "Regular exercise can help improve ED symptoms."

Rationale: Exercise improves circulation and cardiovascular health, which can enhance erectile function.

The nurse is educating a patient about testicular cancer self-exams. Which statement indicates a need for further teaching?

a. "I should check my testicles once a year."

b. "A lump in my testicle should be reported to my doctor."

c. "I should perform the exam after a warm shower."

d. "I will check for any swelling or changes in size."

a. "I should check my testicles once a year."

Rationale: Testicular self-exams should be performed monthly, not annually.

A male patient reports difficulty achieving an erection. Which question is most important for assessing the cause?

a. "Do you drink alcohol regularly?"

b. "What is your shoe size?"

c. "How often do you go to the gym?"

d. "Do you take vitamin supplements?"

a. "Do you drink alcohol regularly?"

Rationale: Alcohol use is a known risk factor for erectile dysfunction.

A patient with prostate cancer is prescribed leuprolide. What is the mechanism of action?

a. It increases testosterone levels

b. It decreases androgen production

c. It reduces sperm production

d. It directly kills cancer cells

b. It decreases androgen production

Rationale: Leuprolide is a GnRH agonist that reduces testosterone levels to slow prostate cancer growth.

A patient with untreated chlamydia is at risk for which complication?

a. Peyronie’s disease

b. Epididymitis and infertility

c. Testicular torsion

d. BPH

b. Epididymitis and infertility

Rationale: Untreated chlamydia can lead to epididymitis, which can cause scarring and infertility.

A patient undergoing radiation therapy for prostate cancer reports burning with urination. What is the best response?

a. "This is an expected side effect."

b. "This means the treatment isn’t working."

c. "You should stop treatment immediately."

d. "You likely have a kidney infection."

a. "This is an expected side effect."

Rationale: Radiation therapy can cause inflammation of the bladder, leading to dysuria.

A male patient is diagnosed with a varicocele. What is a key complication of this condition?

a. Erectile dysfunction

b. Infertility

c. Urinary retention

d. Testicular cancer

b. Infertility

Rationale: Varicoceles can increase testicular temperature, affecting sperm production.

A nurse is counseling a patient who had a vasectomy. What statement requires further teaching?

a. "I will need to use another form of birth control until my doctor confirms I’m sterile."

b. "This procedure is immediately effective for birth control."

c. "Vasectomy does not affect testosterone levels."

d. "I may have some mild discomfort after the procedure."

b. "This procedure is immediately effective for birth control."

Rationale: Sperm may still be present for weeks after a vasectomy, requiring backup contraception.

A patient with a penile fracture reports severe pain and swelling after sexual activity. What is the priority intervention?

a. Apply ice packs

b. Prepare for emergency surgery

c. Encourage fluid intake

d. Administer pain medication

b. Prepare for emergency surgery

Rationale: Penile fractures require immediate surgical repair to prevent complications.

The nurse is providing education on testicular torsion. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding?

a. "This condition is a medical emergency."

b. "It will resolve on its own."

c. "This only occurs in older men."

d. "It is always caused by trauma."

a. "This condition is a medical emergency."

Rationale: Testicular torsion must be treated within hours to prevent testicular loss.

Which hormone stimulates sperm production?

FSH

Which STI is known as "the great imitator" due to varied symptoms?

Syphilis

Which test measures prostate enlargement severity?

PSA (Prostate-Specific Antigen)