Electrical Power Equipment Maintenance

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Last updated 4:19 AM on 7/8/26
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535 Terms

1
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What is the function of ANSI/IEEE standard device number 1?

Master element

2
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What is the function of ANSI/IEEE standard device number 2?

Time-delay starting or closing relay

3
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What is the function of ANSI/IEEE standard device number 3?

Checking or interlocking relay

4
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What is the function of ANSI/IEEE standard device number 4?

Master contractor

5
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What is the function of ANSI/IEEE standard device number 5?

Shopping device

6
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What is the function of ANSI/IEEE standard device number 6?

Starting circuit breaker

7
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What is the function of ANSI/IEEE standard device number 7?

Anode circuit breaker

8
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What is the function of ANSI/IEEE standard device number 8?

Control power disconnecting device

9
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What is the function of ANSI/IEEE standard device number 9?

Reversing device

10
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What is the function of ANSI/IEEE standard device number 10?

Unit sequence switch

11
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What is the function of ANSI/IEEE standard device number 12?

Overspeed device

12
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What is the function of ANSI/IEEE standard device number 13?

Synchronous-speed device

13
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What is the function of ANSI/IEEE standard device number 14?

Underspeed device

14
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What is the function of ANSI/IEEE standard device number 15?

Speed- or frequency-matching device

15
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What is the function of ANSI/IEEE standard device number 17?

Shunting or discharge switch

16
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What is the function of ANSI/IEEE standard device number 18?

Accelerating or decelerating device

17
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What is the function of ANSI/IEEE standard device number 19?

Starting-to-running transition contactor

18
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What is the function of ANSI/IEEE standard device number 20?

Electrically operated valve space (solenoid valve)

19
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What is the function of ANSI/IEEE standard device number 21?

Distance relay

20
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What is the function of ANSI/IEEE standard device number 22?

Equalizer circuit breaker

21
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What is the function of ANSI/IEEE standard device number 23?

Temperature-control device

22
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What is the function of ANSI/IEEE standard device number 25?

Synchronizing- or synchronous-check device

23
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What is the function of ANSI/IEEE standard device number 26?

Apparatus thermal device

24
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What is the function of ANSI/IEEE standard device number 27?

Undervoltage relay

25
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What is the function of ANSI/IEEE standard device number 28?

Flame detector

26
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What is the function of ANSI/IEEE standard device number 29?

Isolating contactor

27
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What is the function of ANSI/IEEE standard device number 30?

Annunciator relay

28
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What is the function of ANSI/IEEE standard device number 31?

Separate excitation device

29
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What is the function of ANSI/IEEE standard device number 32?

Directional power relay

30
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What is the function of ANSI/IEEE standard device number 33?

Position switch

31
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What is the function of ANSI/IEEE standard device number 34?

Master sequence device

32
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What is the function of ANSI/IEEE standard device number 35?

Brush-operating or slip-ring short-circuiting device

33
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What is the function of ANSI/IEEE standard device number 36?

Polarity or polarizing voltage device

34
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What is the function of ANSI/IEEE standard device number 37?

Undercurrent or underpower relay

35
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What is the function of ANSI/IEEE standard device number 38?

Bearing protective device

36
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What is the function of ANSI/IEEE standard device number 39?

Mechanical condition monitor

37
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What is the function of ANSI/IEEE standard device number 40?

Loss of fi eld relay

38
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What is the function of ANSI/IEEE standard device number 46?

Reverse-phase or phase-balance current relay

39
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What is the function of ANSI/IEEE standard device number 47?

Phase-sequence voltage relay

40
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What is the function of ANSI/IEEE standard device number 50?

Instantaneous overcurrent or rate-of-rise relay

41
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What is the function of ANSI/IEEE standard device number 51?

AC time overcurrent relay

42
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What is the function of ANSI/IEEE standard device number 52?

AC circuit breaker

43
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What is the function of ANSI/IEEE standard device number 59?

Overvoltage relay

44
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What is the function of ANSI/IEEE standard device number 60?

Voltage- or current-balance relay (use 60C60\,^{\circ}\text{C} when 60V60\,\text{V} is also present)

45
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What is the function of ANSI/IEEE standard device number 79?

AC reclosing relay

46
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What is the function of ANSI/IEEE standard device number 86?

Locking-out relay

47
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What is the function of ANSI/IEEE standard device number 87?

Differential protective relay

48
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What does the suffix letter N denote when used with device function numbers?

Device is connected in the secondary neutral of current transformers

49
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What purpose do the suffix letters X, Y, and Z serve with device function numbers?

Denote separate auxiliary devices

50
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According to the transcript, what does the suffix letter B denote in the context of device function numbers?

Bus

51
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What specific issue occurs in passive filters as their capacitors age?

Their effectiveness diminishes as they lose μF\mu F and thus raise their notch frequency.

52
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What is the primary function of active filters in harmonic current mitigation?

They are power electronic converters that inject equal-but-opposite distortion to yield more sinusoidal voltage waveforms throughout a network.

53
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What specific capability do active filters have to prevent overload from new harmonic sources?

Current-limiting capability.

54
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According to the transcript, what is the recommended recording duration for monitoring mitigation equipment after commissioning?

One week of measurements is needed to observe the entire weekly load cycle.

55
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Which transformer configuration is used for phase relationship shifts through cancellation techniques?

Delta–delta and delta–wye transformers.

56
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Why are isolation transformers considered a good solution for AC or DC drives using SCRs?

They provide voltage matching (stepping up or down) and provide a N–G reference for nuisance ground faults.

57
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What are the standard impedance ranges for line reactors (inductors)?

1.5%1.5\%, 3%3\%, 5%5\%, and 7.5%7.5\%.

58
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Why is the use of three-light circuit testers not recommended for verifying wiring adequacy for critical loads?

They have limitations, can provide a correct indication even when problems exist, and are incapable of indicating the integrity of power conductors.

59
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Why should phase, neutral, and equipment grounding conductors be routed through continuously grounded metallic conduit?

To provide a shield for radiated interference.

60
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How can a technician determine if a neutral conductor is being shared with other loads?

Check the neutral current with the sensitive load turned off; if the current is not zero, a shared neutral is being used.

61
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What is indicated by a zero voltage measurement between neutral and ground at outlets?

The presence of a nearby N–G bond.

62
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What is the recommended practice for the impedance level of an equipment grounding conductor?

0.25Ω0.25\,\Omega or less.

63
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Under what condition can an accurate measurement of grounding electrode resistance be taken?

Only when the grounding electrode is disconnected from all other grounds.

64
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What does a zero current flow in the grounding electrode conductor usually indicate?

An open connection.

65
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To which first upstream point must the IG (Isolated Ground) and conduit ground terminate?

The first upstream N–G bonding point.

66
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What are the five major areas covered by the National Electrical Safety Code (NESC)?

Grounding methods, installation/maintenance of supply stations, overhead lines, underground lines, and work practices for operation.

67
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As of January 1, 2009, when must an employer require employees to wear arc-rated clothing?

When an assessment determines a potential employee exposure is greater than 2cal/cm22\,cal/cm^2.

68
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Which materials are strictly prohibited for clothing when an employee is exposed to an electric arc or flame?

Acetate, nylon, polyester, or polypropylene.

69
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What is the principle objective of the NEC NFPA 70?

To help minimize the possibility of electric fires.

70
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According to NEC article 110.16, where must flash protection markings be located?

Clearly visible to qualified persons before examination, adjustment, servicing, or maintenance of the equipment.

71
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What are the four chapters reorganized in the sixth edition of NFPA 70E-2004?

Chapter 1: Safety-related work practices; Chapter 2: Safety-related maintenance requirements; Chapter 3: Safety requirements for special equipment; Chapter 4: Installation safety requirements.

72
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At what voltage level does NFPA 70E require safety-related work practices to protect employees from flash and contact hazards?

50V50\,V or more.

73
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Define the 'Limited Approach Boundary' for shock protection.

An approach limit at a distance from an exposed live part within which a shock hazard exists.

74
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What defines the 'Restricted Approach Boundary'?

A distance within which there is an increased risk of shock due to electrical arc over combined with inadvertent movement.

75
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What is the 'Flash Protection Boundary' for systems that are 600V600\,V or less with a clearing time of six cycles and 50 kA fault current?

4.0ft4.0\,ft.

76
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What constitutes the incident energy level for the flash protection boundary at voltages above 600V600\,V?

The distance at which the incident energy equals 5J/cm25\,J/cm^2 (1.2cal/cm21.2\,cal/cm^2).

77
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Why are PPE ATPV values above 40cal/cm240\,cal/cm^2 prohibited despite being available?

Due to the sound, pressure, and concussive forces being more severe than the thermal values.

78
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What is the minimum arc rating for PPE Hazard/Risk Category 1?

16.74J/cm216.74\,J/cm^2 (4cal/cm24\,cal/cm^2).

79
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What is the definition of EBT in the context of arc rating?

The average of the five highest incident energy exposure values below the Stoll curve where the specimens do not exhibit break open.

80
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What is the meaning of a red color-coded label in an arc-flash analysis program?

Maximum severity for which no PPE category is available and where energized work is prohibited.

81
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How is 'Arc-flash hazard' defined in the transcript?

A dangerous condition associated with the release of energy caused by an electric arc.

82
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According to IEEE 1584-2002, what potentially hazardous effects were not considered in the analysis methodology?

Molten metal splatter, projectiles, pressure impulses, and toxic arc by-products.

83
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What is the first mandatory step in the sequence for removing a capacitor from operation?

Isolate the capacitors by opening the breakers or isolation devices connecting them to the electrical system.

84
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What is the caution regarding vacuum circuit breaker high-potential testing and X-radiation?

Do not make hipot tests on an open breaker at voltages higher than 36kV36\,kV AC across each interrupter.

85
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What are the voltage limits for Class 2 High Voltage rubber gloves?

Tested for 15,000V15,000\,V for use on 10kV10\,kV or less.

86
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What is the visual indication of a two-part neon bulb in a low-voltage tester when energized by AC?

Both parts of the bulb glow.

87
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What is the lowest voltage that can be reliably detected by a proximity type HV tester?

About 2000V2000\,V.

88
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What is the required minimum size for grounding cables used for personnel protection?

No.1/0Americanwiregauge(AWG)No. 1/0 American wire gauge (AWG) conductor.

89
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What is the recommended maximum duration an employee should work on-site in a single period?

No more than 12h12\,h, preceded and followed by a minimum of 8h8\,h of rest.

90
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What dielectric resistance test should be performed on a low-voltage breaker prior to racking in?

A 1000V1000\,V megohm meter test phase-to-phase and phase-to-ground.

91
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What is the safety procedure for a technician if a ventilating blower stops while they are in a confined space?

Leave the confined space immediately and remove the hose.

92
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What is the 'inching method' used for in electrical switching?

Opening manually operated disconnects gradually until the operator is sure there is no load current.

93
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When should the inching method NEVER be used?

For load break disconnects, air break switches, or switching devices designed to break load or magnetizing currents.

94
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What is the minimum working and clear hot stick distance for a phase-to-phase voltage range of 46.146.1 to 72.5kV72.5\,kV?

3ft0in3\,ft\,0\,in.

95
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Why should an operator never reopen a disconnect after a failed attempt at closing it under load?

The lines or apparatus should be de-energized before the disconnect is opened if the alignment is wrong.

96
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What is an 'air break switch' designed to do?

Energize and de-energize load currents, magnetizing current of power transformers, and charging current of transmission lines.

97
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What current value through the body trunk is associated with ventricular fibrillation?

100100 to 200mA200\,mA.

98
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What is the threshold of perception for 60Hz60\,Hz current in an average human?

1mA1\,mA, or less.

99
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What is the standard resistance value for 'Internal body Hand-to-foot'?

400400 to 600Ω600\,\Omega.

100
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What is the required frequency for heart compression during resuscitation?

6060 times per minute.