Sugery Lecture Exam 2

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Last updated 1:55 AM on 7/24/26
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200 Terms

1
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How should the patient be positioned when you begin clipping hair?

the same position the patient will be in for the procedure

2
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What grip do we use for hair clippers?

pencil grip

3
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What number blade should we use in the clippers?

#40

4
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Should you use clippers against the grain or in the direction of the hair growth?

Both to get the closest shave

5
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How much hair should you remove for a surgical procedure?

At least 2 clipper blade widths from the area of the proposed incision, preferably more to allow for changes during the surgical procedures.

6
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If you are prepping an orthopedic procedure and are using the “hanging leg” technique, how will you remove the hair from the sirgical site?

circumferentially (circles going around the leg)

7
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T or F: You should always clip and prep the patient in only your scrubs.

False, always wear a lab coat to prevent the tracking of hair into the surgical suite

8
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Why do we use a #40 blade instead of a #10 blade?

#40 gives us a finer and closer cut

9
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How should you hold the vacuum when removing hair?

With at least one finger over the suction hole so as not to grab at the skin and cause damage or irritation

10
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Why is it important to make clean, crisp edges when clipping a patient?

Because this is the only part of the procedure that the client sees. We want to make it as professional-looking as possible

11
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____ suture - applied around the anal opening to prevent leakage of fecal material during surgery.

purse-string suture

12
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When would we use a purse-string suture?

perineal surgery or hind-limb orthopedic procedures

13
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How often should clipper blades be brushed, disinfected, and lubricated?

After each use

14
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T or F: Skin cannot be “sterilized” but is made “antiseptic” with the use of antiseptics.

True

15
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What are the most commonly used antiseptics? (2)

  • Chlorhexidine

  • Providone-iodine

16
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The skin is made antiseptic in two stages. What are they?

  • “rough” prep

  • “sterile” prep

17
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Where is the rough prep performed?

in the surgical preparation area (induction)

18
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Where is the sterile prep performed?

in the surgical suite

19
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What are the desirable properties of antiseptics? (5)

  • wide spectrum of antimicrobial activity

  • low tissue toxicity

  • inexpensive

  • residual activity

  • works well in the presence of organic activity

20
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For abdominal surgeries where the prepuce will be “draped in,” the prepuce should be flushed with what?

dilute betadine

21
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What type of gloves do we use for the intial scrub?

exam gloves

22
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What type of gloves do we use for the final scrub?

sterile gloves

23
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What technique should be used during the final scrub?

clean hand, dirty hand

24
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How should you scrub a patient?

center out and in circular motions

25
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T or F: Once the sponge has touched hair, you do not go back over the incision area; you should discard the sponge.

True

26
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How long is the general contact time for a scrub solution?

5 minutes, or until the sponges come away clean with no residue or dirt

27
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T or F: When using a huck towel to remove scrub solution, you should use circular motions and move from the center out.

False, huck towels should be used to pat dry; do not rub

28
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T or F: You can use dry gauze to remove scrub solution.

True

29
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When a surgeon “paints” the surgical site, what are they doing?

Usually a providone-iodine solution without detergent and slightly high concentration. It is allowed to dry on the skin and is usually applied with a spray bottle

30
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T or F: You generally should not mix chlorhexidine and iodine products.

True

31
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Which scrub solution has “okay” residual activity?

Iodine

32
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Which scrub solution has low tissue toxicity everywhere?

Iodine

33
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Which scrub solution has low tissue toxicity everywhere except mucous membranes?

chlorhexidine

34
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Which scrub solution will stain clothing and fur?

Iodine

35
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Which scrub solution will not stain clothing or fur?

Chlorhexidine

36
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Which scrub solution is inactivated by inorganic debris?

Iodine

37
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Which scrub solution has good activity in organic debris?

Chlorhexidine

38
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How do you generally dilute Iodine?

50:50 with water

39
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How do you generally dilute chlorhexidine?

60:40 with water

40
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Which scrub solution more commonly produces an adverse reaction?

Iodine

41
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Which rinsing agent is antibacterial and dries quickly?

alcohol

42
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Why must we be careful when using alcohol as a rinsing agent?

we must be cautious when using cautery because alcohol is flammable

43
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Which rinsing agent has no antimicrobial activity and is not flammable?

water

44
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What position should the patient be in for an abdominal surgery?

dorsal

45
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What position should the patient be in for a castration?

dorsal

46
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What position should the patient be in for an orthopedic and extremity surgery?

lateral recumbency

47
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What position should the patient be in for a tail and perianal surgery?

ventral recumbency

48
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What position should the patient be in for a back surgery?

ventral recumbency and in a V trough

49
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What position should the patient be in for a thoracic surgery?

lateral or dorsal recumbency depending on the surgeon’s intent

50
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When is the hanging led technique most commonly used?

extremity orthopedic or soft tissue procedures

51
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What is the advantage of the hanging leg technique?

Allows the entire extremity to be draped in and manipulated during surgery. Fatigue of muscles for fracture reduction

52
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____ - the complete elimination of microbial viability

sterilization

53
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____ - the destruction of most pathogenic organisms on inanimate objects

disinfection

54
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____ - prevents growth or action of microorganisms on living tissue by inhibiting activity or killing them (not sterile)

antisepsis

55
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____ - living organism too small to be seen with the unaided eye

microbe/microorganism

56
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____ - microbe capable of causing disease

pathogen

57
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____ - the detrimental result of invasion by pathogens

infection

58
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____ - infection acquired during hospitalization or during attendance at any veterinary medical facility

nosocomial

59
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What surgical preparations begin the day before surgery?

giving the animal a bath and withholding food and water

60
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How long should solid food be withheld before surgery?

at least 6 hours

61
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Why do we withhold food and water before surgery?

decrease the risk of regurgitation and aspiration while under anesthesia

62
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What does NPO stand for?

nothing per os (by mouth)

63
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What should be included in a pre-op exam?

  • signalment

  • history

  • physical exam

  • consent form

  • weight

  • BCS

  • head and neck

  • skin

  • lungs

  • heart

64
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What should be included in the history?

  • signalment

  • reason for visit

  • specific history of presenting complaint

  • current medications

65
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What should be included in the physical exam?

  • weight, BCS, TPR

  • head and neck

  • abdomen and chest

  • skin

  • lymph nodes

  • orthopedic exam

  • neurological exam

66
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What should be included in a consent form?

  • identifies the patient

  • specific procedures to be performed

  • potential risks

  • veterinarian’s name

  • estimate

  • signature of owner

  • owner contact info

67
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How should you record the weight of your patient pre-op?

in kg and the current weight for that day

68
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On a 1-5 BCS, 1 means what? And 5 means what?

  • 1 means emaciated

  • 5 means obese

69
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What do we test within the head and neck exam?

  • PLR (pupillary light response)

  • CRT (capillary refill time)

  • Lymph nodes

  • skin tent

  • neck (flex for pain)

70
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What are we checking for with a skin exam?

  • alopecia

  • coat quality

  • palpation

  • external parasites

71
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How should we auscultate the lungs in a pre-op exam?

both sides: cranial, middle, and caudal areas over the ribs

72
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Where should you auscultate the heart?

left cranial side below the elbow

73
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A minimum database for a young healthy surgical candidate should include what?

  • packed cell volume (PCV)

  • total solids (TS)

  • blood glucose (BG)

  • blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

  • alanine aminotransferase (ALT)

74
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What are the four components of the pain pathway in order?

  • Transduction - pain is recognized and sent to the CNS

  • Transmission - impulses are sent toward the spinal cord

  • Modulation - pain signals are processed in the spinal cord

  • Perception - pain signals are recognized by the brain, and a reaction occurs

75
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How do opioids manage pain?

opioids work at several locations along the pain pathway, affecting nociceptive signal transduction, modulating signals at the spinal level, and inhibiting perception of pain.

76
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What receptors are involved with opioid pain management?

The Mu and Kappa receptors

77
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How do NSAIDs provide pain relief?

They block COX1 and COX2 enzymes

78
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How do Alpha2-Adrenergic Agonists provide pain relief?

by inhibiting transduction and transmission of nerve impulses and modifying the signals at the spinal cord

79
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Which wound classification is this: Nontraumatic, uninfected, no break in aseptic technique, no inflammation encountered, elective, primary closed, no drains.

Clean

80
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Which wound classification is this: Controlled entry into hollow viscus, minor break in aseptic technique.

Clean-contaminated

81
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Which wound classification is this: Open, fresh traumatic wound, incision into a site with acute non-purulent inflammation, major breaks in aseptic technique.

Contaminated

82
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Which wound classification is this: Pus encountered during surgery, perforated viscus found, traumatic wound with devitalized tissue, foreign material or fecal contamination, or of more than 4 hours duration, perforated viscus, acute bacterial infection with purulent exudates encountered during surgery.

Dirty

83
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Which wound classification is this: surgically created wound, no hollow viscus opened, aseptic technique maintained, no infection encountered.

Clean

84
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Which wound classification is this: surgical wounds that enter hollow viscus, minor break in technique occurs

Clean-contaminated

85
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Which wound classification is this: major break in technique, hollow viscus is opened with gross spillage, traumatic wounds

Contaminated

86
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Which wound classification is this: conatins purulent material, contains contents of perforated hollow viscus, more than 100,000 per gram of tissue.

Dirty or Infected

87
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Primary wound closure is used for what kinds of wounds?

Clean and clean-contaminated

88
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What kind of wound closure is this: the wound is left open for 2-5 days and is closed prior to granulation tissue formation. Permits repeated lavage and debridement to convert the wound to clean-contaminated status appropriate for closure.

delayed primary

89
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How are contaminated wounds closed?

delayed primary

90
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What kind of wound closure is this: granulation tissue is allowed to form in the wound prior to closure. Deep narrow wounds-direct apposition over granulation tissue

Secondary

91
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How do we close dirty or infected wounds?

second intention closing

92
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<p>What kind of closure is this? </p>

What kind of closure is this?

second intention

93
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____ - taking steps to prevent disease

prophylaxis

94
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____ - taking antibiotics after surgery

postoperative

95
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____ - taking antibiotics just before and during surgery

perioperative

96
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When do we need to give antibiotics?

  • long surgery (more than 2 hours)

  • Orthopedic implants

  • break in asepsis

  • entering GI tract

97
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What is the best prevention of infection?

good surgical technique

98
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When there is a gross contamination during surgery, what should you do?

lavage and repair the break is asepsis

99
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When should you give perioperative antibiotics?

30 minutes before skin incision and every 90 minutes during surgery

100
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____ - also known as bed sores or pressure sores.

decubital ulcers