Microbio E1 Chap 1-13

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What is a prokaryote?

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172 Terms

1

What is a prokaryote?

simple, single-celled organism that lacks a nucleus and membrane bound organelles

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2

What substance forms many bacterial walls and consists of glycosaminoglycan chains interlinked with short peptides?

peptidoglycan

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3

What structure does penicillin target to disrupt the integrity of the bacterial cell wall?

peptide cross-links

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4

What is a bacterial chromosome?

single, large, circular, double-stranded DNA molecule that contains all the genetic information required by the cell

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5

What is a plasmid?

small, circular, double-stranded DNA; not essential to growth or metabolism; duplicated and passed down to offspring

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6

Where are plasmids and the bacterial chromosome located?

in the nucleoid

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7

What is transcription?

synthesis of mRNA from DNA

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8

What is translation?

synthesis of proteins from mRNA

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9

Why can transcription and translation occur simultaneously?

cell lacks membrane bound nucleus: all components need are in the cytoplasm

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10

Which bacterial genres produce endospores?

bacillus and clostridium

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11

Which bacteria is known to cause outbreaks of diarrhea in hospitals and nursing homes?

C. diff

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12

Which type of bacteria has a thick layer of peptidoglycan that forms a single layer around the cell? What color will this turn during a gram stain?

Gram +; purple

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13

Steps of a gram stain:

Flood slide with crystal violet x10 sec then rinse → flood with Gram’s iodine x 10 sec then rinse → decolorize with 95% ethanol until thinnest parts are colorless then rinse → flood with safranin (pink) x10 sec then rinse → air dry or blot with absorbent paper

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14

When viewed under a microscope, which G+ bacteria appear as cocci in clusters “bunches of grapes”?

staphylococcaceae

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15

When viewed under a microscope, which G+ bacteria appear as cocci in pairs or chains?

Streptococcus

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16

How does listeria look after a gram stain when viewed through a microscope. Does it produce spores?

G+; purple, linked rods; non-spore forming

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17

Define pleomorphism.

present in different sizes and shapes due to variations in cell wall

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18

What are the 6 I’s of culturing microbes?

inoculation, incubation, isolation, inspection, information gathering, identification

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19

Which of the 6 I’s of identification introduces the sample into a container of sterile media?

inoculation

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20

Which of the 6 I’s of identification provides conditions for optimal growth?

incubation

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21

Which of the 6 I’s of identification getting a pure culture of the microbe?

isolation

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22

Which of the 6 I’s of identification looking at colonies and microscopic characteristics?

inspection

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23

Which of the 6 I’s of identification involves biochemical, immunologic, and genetic testing?

information gathering

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24

Which of the 6 I’s of identification assigns a specific name to the microbe?

identification

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25

What factors affect microbial growth?

nutrients, temperature, pH and presence of water, atmospheric gases (O2, CO2, N2)

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26

Which form of media contains pure organic and inorganic compounds in an exact chemical formula?

synthetic

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27

Which form of media contains at least one ingredient that is not chemically definable (organic extracts)?

non-synthetic

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28

Which form of media grows on a broad range of microbes, usually non-synthetic, nutrient agar and broth, peptone water, etc?

general purpose

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29

Which form of media contains complex organic substances such as blood, serum, Hgb, or special growth factors required by fastidious microbes?

enriched

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30

Which form of media contains one or more agents that inhibit growth of some microbes and encourage growth of the desired microbes?

selective

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31

Which form of media allows growth of several types of microbes and displays visible differences among desired and undesired microbes?

differential

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32

Which specific medium would be best to isolate pathogenic Staphylococci?

selective

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33

Why is the growth curve in a bacterial culture closed?

nutrients and space are finite: no mechanism for the removal of waste products

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34

What is the average period it takes to complete the entire bacterial growth curve?

period of 4 days

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35

What are the four phases of the microbial growth curve?

lag, exponential growth, stationary, death

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36

Which G+ bacteria stain like G-? Why does this happen?

actinomyces, corynebacterium, mycobacterium, and propionibacterium due to their walls being sensitive to breakage during cell division

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37

Which bacteria respond best to acid-fast staining?

mycobacteria

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38

Which groups of bacteria are considered obligate intracellular parasites? How are they different from non-obligate intracellular bacteria?

Rickettsia and Chlamydia: cannot survive or multiply outside of a host cell; cannot carry out metabolism on their own

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39

What are the four main fungal divisions?

zygomycota, ascomycota, basidiomycota, chytridiomycota

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40

Which division of fungus does not cause human disease?

chytridiomycota

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41

What are the two morphologies in which microscopic fungi exist?

yeast and hyphae (mold)

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42

Which division of fungus makes bread mold?

zygomycota

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43

Which division of fungus makes yeast, penicillium, ringworm, candida albicans, and black mold?

ascomycota

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44

Which division of fungus contributes to crypto neoformans?

basidiomycota

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45

What is the difference between primary and opportunistic fungal pathogens? What is an example of each?

primary: exist in yeast and mold forms (dimorphic) -histoplasma, blastomyces

opportunistic: happen secondary to a weakened immune system -cryptococcus, candida

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46

What are the two protozoan stages?

trophozoite (feeding) and cyst (resistant)

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47

What types of marine life can cause food poisoning?

red tide, paralytic shellfish, ciguatera fish

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48

What are the protozoan groups based on?

locomotion and reproduction

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49

What protozoan pathogens are associated with the mastigophra group?

trypanosoma cruzi (chagas), leishmania, giardia lamblia, trich vaginalis

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50

What are the two groups of parasitic helminths?

flatworms and roundworms

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51

What group of helminths do tapeworms and flukes belong to?

flatworms

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52

What group of helminths do pinworms belong to?

roundworms

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53

What is the difference between an enveloped and naked virus?

enveloped has an envelope/covering around the capsid, naked do not

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54

What are the six stages of virus replication?

adsorption, penetration, uncoating, duplication/synthesis, assembly, release

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55

What cytopathic effects are caused by viruses?

damage to host cells that alters their appearance (cell lysis, alter DNA, change shape, fuse, damage)

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56

What type of infections do prions cause?

transmissible spongiform encephalopathies (TSEs)

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57

How do prion diseases spread?

direct contact, contaminated foods → form holes in nervous tissue

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58

What is the name of the rapidly progressive neurodegenerative human prion disease?

Cruetzfeldt-Jakob disease

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59

Which microbes have the highest resistance to control?

bacterial endospores

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60

What is the goal of sterilization?

destroying endospores (kills all microbial life)

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61

Which microbicidal agent is considered a sterilizing agent?

sporicide

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62

What process temporarily prevents microbes from multiplying?

microbiostatic

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63

What process or chemical agent kills pathogenic organisms?

microbicide

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64

Which type of cleaning process is defined as any cleansing technique that mechanically removes microbes? Ex: dishwashing

sanitization

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65

What type of cleaning process reduces the number of microbes on the human skin? Ex: surgical hand scrub

degermation

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66

What type of cleaning process uses chemical agents on the skin to destroy or inhibit vegetative pathogens? Ex: antibacterial soap, preoperative iodine

antisepsis

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67

What type of cleaning process destroys vegetative pathogens (not endospores) on inanimate objects? Ex: 5% bleach, boiling water

disinfection

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68

What is microbial death?

permanent loss of reproductive capability, even under optimum growth conditions

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69

What factors can affect an antimicrobial agent’s mechanism of action?

number of microbes, nature of microbes in the population, temperature and pH of environment, concentration of agent, mode of action of the agent, presences of solvents, organic matter, or inhibitors

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70

What are the four cellular targets that antimicrobial agents aim to destroy?

cell wall, cell membrane, cellular synthetic process of proteins and nucleic acids: DNA and RNA, proteins structure and function

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71

What antimicrobial agents are most effective at targeting the cell wall?

antibiotics, detergent, alcohol

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72

What antimicrobial agents are most effective at targeting the cell membrane?

surfactants

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73

What antimicrobial agents are most effective at targeting the cell synthetic process of proteins and nucleic acids?

antibiotics, chemicals, radiation

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74

What antimicrobial agents are most effective at targeting the proteins structure and function?

heat, chemicals

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75

Which form heat is most effective for microbial control? Ex: autoclave

moist heat

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76

What is desiccation? Is it an effective method of sterilization?

gradual removal of water from cells → metabolic inhibition; NO

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77

What is ionizing radiation?

“cold” deep penetrating, breaks DNA; gamma rays, x-rays

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78

What is non ionizing radiation?

little penetrating, used to disinfect/sterilize air, water and solid surfaces

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79

What is filtration?

mechanical removal of microbes by passing a gas or liquid through a filter

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80

Which heavy metals are used for antimicrobial control?

silver and mercury

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81

What is silver sulfadiazine ointment commonly used for?

burn patients

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82

Which type of antibiotics are effective on a small range of microbes and target specific cell components?

narrow spectrum

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83

Which type of antibiotics have the greatest range of activity and contain tart components common to most pathogens?

broad spectrum

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84

What is the mechanism of action of beta-lactam antimicrobials?

interfere with cell wall synthesis

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85

What are the most used beta-lactams?

penicillins and cephalosporins

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86

Which form of penicillin does not penetrate the outer membrane, are less effective against G- bacteria, and considered narrow spectrum?

natural

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87

Which form of penicillin crosses the cell walls of G- bacteria and are broad spectrum?

semisynthetic

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88

Is carbapenem (a beta-lactam drug) narrow or broad spectrum? give examples

broad; imipenem, meropenem

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89

Is monobactam (a beta-lactam drug) narrow or broad spectrum? give examples

narrow; aztreonam, only work on G-

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90

What root names are associated with all generic cephalosporin medications?

-cef, ceph, or kef

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91

How has each successive generation of cephalosporins expanded its coverage?

all cover G+; each group is more effective against G- than before

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92

What antimicrobials can disrupt cell membrane function?

polymyxins, daptomycins, amphotericin B, nystatin

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93

Which antimicrobials affect nucleic acid synthesis?

fluoroquinoles and antiviral drugs that are analogs of purines and pyrimidines

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94

How do fluroquinoles stop DNA replication and repair?

bind and inhibit DNA gyrase and topoisomerases, stopping DNA replication and repair

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95

What should you warn you patient about if you prescribe fluoroquinolone?

tendinosis and cardiac conduction issues

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96

Which ribosomal subunit do aminoglycosides target to disrupt protein synthesis?

30S

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97

What type of drug are aminoglycosides?

broad spectrum antibiotics

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98

What other class of antibiotics target the 30S ribosomal subunit?

tetracyclines

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99

Which antimicrobial interfere with protein synthesis by targeting the 50S ribosomal unit?

chloramphenicol, erythromycin, azithromycin, clarithromycin

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100

Which antimicrobials interfere with protein synthesis by targeting both the 30S and 50S ribosomal units?

oxazolidinone

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