Comprehensive Pathophysiology Flashcards

What is the most common cause of cell injury?

Ischemia, which injures cells faster than hypoxia alone by restricting blood supply.

Which cellular accumulation is the first manifestation of reversible injury?

Hydropic swelling, caused by Na⁺/K⁺-pump failure and ATP loss.

During anaerobic respiration, which by-product accumulates and causes pain and fatigue?

Lactic acid.

Name three key mechanisms of reperfusion injury.

Calcium overload, free-radical formation, and inflammation.

Which form of radiation injury is mediated by free radicals?

Ionizing radiation damage via radiolysis of water generating free radicals.

Define atrophy.

A decrease in cell size and functional capacity, often due to disuse or ischemia.

Define hypertrophy.

An increase in cell size and augmented functional capacity due to greater protein content.

Define hyperplasia.

An increase in cell number in response to physiologic demand or hormonal stimulation.

Define metaplasia.

Reversible conversion of one differentiated cell type to another, usually simpler type.

Define dysplasia.

Disorganized growth with abnormal size, shape, and arrangement; may be preneoplastic.

Which type of necrosis is most common and typically follows ischemia?

Coagulative necrosis (e.g., in the heart).

What organ commonly exhibits liquefactive necrosis?

The brain, where lysosomal enzymes liquefy tissue.

What is caseous necrosis classically associated with?

Tuberculosis infection of the lungs, giving a cheese-like appearance.

Describe dry gangrene.

Coagulative necrosis that appears black, dry, and shriveled, demarcated from healthy tissue.

What bacterium causes gas gangrene?

Clostridium perfringens infecting necrotic tissue and producing gas bubbles.

Does apoptosis cause inflammation?

No, apoptosis is programmed cell death without inflammation.

Which tumor suppressor gene is mutated most often in cancers?

TP53 (p53), which normally halts cell cycling and triggers apoptosis on DNA damage.

Differentiate benign from malignant tumors regarding metastasis.

Benign tumors do not metastasize; malignant tumors frequently spread to distant sites.

What suffix indicates a malignant tumor of epithelial origin?

-carcinoma (e.g., adenocarcinoma).

Which viral infection is linked to Kaposi sarcoma?

Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV).

What does TNM staging assess?

Tumor size (T), Node involvement (N), and distant Metastasis (M).

Define cachexia.

Cancer-associated weight loss, weakness, and anorexia due to high metabolic demand of tumors.

What is neutropenia?

Neutrophil count <500/µL, greatly raising infection risk.

Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by which antibody class?

IgE antibodies triggering mast-cell degranulation.

Give a clinical example of Type II hypersensitivity.

Hemolytic disease of the newborn from Rh incompatibility.

Which immune complexes deposit in tissues in Type III hypersensitivity?

IgG/IgM antigen-antibody complexes that activate complement and cause inflammation.

Which hypersensitivity type is T-cell mediated and delayed?

Type IV, exemplified by contact dermatitis or TB skin test.

What laboratory test monitors the extrinsic coagulation pathway?

Prothrombin Time/International Normalized Ratio (PT/INR).

Which vitamin deficiency prolongs PT/INR but leaves platelet count normal?

Vitamin K deficiency.

Name the three phases of hemostasis.

Primary platelet plug formation, secondary coagulation cascade (fibrin clot), and clot retraction.

What triad promotes deep-vein thrombosis (DVT)?

Virchow’s triad: venous stasis, endothelial injury, and hypercoagulability.

Which side (right vs. left) ventricular embolus typically causes pulmonary embolism?

Right-ventricular thromboembolus travels to the pulmonary arteries.

List the six P’s of acute arterial occlusion.

Pain, Pallor, Pulselessness, Paresthesia, Paralysis, Poikilothermia.

Raynaud syndrome is triggered by what?

Cold or emotional stress causing extreme digital vasospasm.

Define true aneurysm.

Balloonlike dilation involving all three vessel wall layers (intima, media, adventitia).

Primary hypertension lacks an identifiable cause; what term describes hypertension from renal artery stenosis?

Secondary hypertension.

What blood pressure defines Stage 2 hypertension?

160 mm Hg systolic or >100 mm Hg diastolic.

Which compensatory system releases renin when renal perfusion drops?

Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System (RAAS).

How do ACE inhibitors lower blood pressure?

They block conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, reducing vasoconstriction and aldosterone.

Elevated LDL is strongly correlated with which cardiac disease?

Coronary artery disease via atherosclerotic plaque formation.

Differentiate stable from unstable angina by predictability.

Stable angina is predictable with exertion; unstable angina is unpredictable and may occur at rest.

Which ECG change signifies a STEMI?

ST-segment elevation indicating full-thickness myocardial infarction.

Name the three cardiac biomarkers used to diagnose MI.

Troponin I/T, CK-MB, and myoglobin.

What does MONA stand for in acute coronary care?

Morphine, Oxygen, Nitroglycerin, Aspirin (antiplatelet).

Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea suggests failure of which heart side?

Left-sided heart failure causing pulmonary congestion during recumbency.

Right-sided heart failure leads to which systemic sign?

Peripheral edema due to systemic venous congestion.

Which drug class reduces preload by promoting diuresis in heart failure?

Loop diuretics (e.g., furosemide).

Define cardiogenic shock.

Life-threatening low cardiac output despite adequate intravascular volume, often after MI.

Which shock presents with warm, flushed skin and low systemic vascular resistance?

Septic shock from infection-induced vasodilation.

What is the first drug for anaphylactic shock?

Intramuscular epinephrine to reverse airway constriction and vasodilation.

Define ARDS and its hallmark.

Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome; hallmark is severe refractory hypoxemia due to alveolar injury.

Which pneumothorax type shifts the trachea away from the injured side?

Tension pneumothorax, a medical emergency.

COPD includes chronic bronchitis and what other condition?

Emphysema characterized by alveolar wall destruction and air trapping.

Blue bloater refers to which COPD variant?

Chronic bronchitis with cyanosis, productive cough, and edema.

Which test differentiates chronic bronchitis by showing decreased FEV₁/FVC ratio?

Spirometry pulmonary function testing.

Asthma is often triggered by which immunoglobulin-mediated mechanism?

IgE-mediated mast cell activation in extrinsic (allergic) asthma.

What is status asthmaticus?

Life-threatening, prolonged, refractory asthma attack with severe airway obstruction.

Metabolic acidosis is commonly accompanied by what electrolyte disturbance?

Hyperkalemia, as H⁺ shifts into cells and K⁺ shifts out.

Hyperventilation