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DNA is unique to each bacteria species because:
a. it has a unique RNA sequence.
b. it has a specific shape.
c. it has a specific color.
d. it has a unique DNA sequence.
d. it has a unique DNA sequence.
E. coli that colonizes withing human intestine is an example of:
a. antagonism.
b. mutualism.
c. neutralism.
d. parasitism.
b. mutualism
Which of the following scientists created a microscope?
a. Ferdinand J. Cohn
b. Anton van Leeuwenhoek
c. Louis Pasteur
d. Robert Koch
b. Anton van Leeuwenhoek
Filtration is the:
a. movement of a substance with the expenditure of energy.
b. movement of a substance against gravity.
c. random movement of substances until evenly distributed.
d. movement of small substances through a filter membrane.
d. movement of small substances through a filter membrane
An optical microscope uses:
a. high powered beam.
b. light source and compounding medium.
c. reflecting light.
d. natural light.
b. light source and compounding medium.
According to the CDC, the primary focus of Standard Precautions is to:
a. minimize PPE.
b. promote basic hand hygiene.
c. prevent transmission of a disease.
d. isolate a patient with infectious disease.
c. prevent transmission of a disease.
Which of the following types of culture media consists of more than one nutrient with unknown composition?
a. differential
b. complex
c. anaerobic
d. defined
b. complex
The microscope that provides detailed, three-dimensional images of the specimen by reflecting light off the surface of the specimen is the:
a. stereo microscope.
b. TEM.
c. SEM.
d. compound light microscope.
a. stereo microscope.
Which of the following fucntions is an example of passive transport?
a. exocytosis
b. phagocytosis
c. diffusion
d. endocytosis
c. diffusion
The sample for a culture and sensitivity test is usually collected in:
a. a test tube.
b. a microscope slide.
c. a culture medium.
d. a petri dish.
a. a test tube.
Which of the following domains in Carl Woese's system includes single-celled eukaryotic organism such as fungi, plants, and animals?
a. archaea
b. bacteria
c. genus
d. eukarya
d.eukarya
Which of the following choices is NOT a common type of HAI?
a. SSI
b. UTI
c. gastrointestinal infection
d. skin infection
d. skin infection
Which of the following staining methods is used to determine the basic shape and structures of the cell and is applied with a single dye?
a. Gram staining
b. simple staining
c. acid-fast staining
d. differential staining
b. simple staining
Robert Hooke is known for:
a. growing bacteria.
b. observing fungal growth.
c. observing algae growth.
d. growing protozoa.
b. observing fungal growth.
If the organism is sensitive to an antibiotic, it means that:
a. it is resistant to treatment with that antibiotic.
b. it is a multi-drug resistant strain.
c. it cannot be identified using staining method.
d. it is susceptible to treatment with that antibiotic
d. it is susceptible to treatment with that antibiotic
The primary goal of the surgical team member's effort to prevent SSIs is to:
a. provide the best surgical outcome.
b. maximize patient's comfort.
c. minimize surgical cost.
d. be vigilant with sterile technique.
a. provide the best surgical outcome.
Robert Koch was able to prove the germ theory by colonizing the bacteria that caused:
a. gas gangrene.
b. anthrax.
c. tetanus.
d. botulism.
b. anthrax
Which of the following organisms is NOT a common pathogen in the healthcare setting?
a. viruses
b. protozoa
c. algae
d. bacteria
c. algae
Algae produce a cyanotoxin and can be harmful to humans.
a. True
b. False
a. true
Which of the following stages of the infectious process is characterized by the most severe signs and symptoms of the disease?
a. incubation
b. decline
c. illness
d. prodromal
c. illness
The genetic material in prokaryotic cells is located in the:
a. endoplasmic reticulum.
b. mitochondria.
c. nucleus.
d. nucleoid
d. nucleoid
Which of the following viruses is recently labeled extensively drug-resistant?
a. XDR-TB
b. MDR-TB
c. Ebola
d. COVID-19
a. XDR-TB
Which of the following practices is NOT a recommended Standard Precaution for healthcare workers?
a. use of appropriate PPE
b. safe sharps handling
c. sharing PPE with colleagues
d. frequent hand hygiene
c. sharing PPE with colleagues
Which of the following diseases in humans is characterized by dementia and myoclonus and is associated with prion infections?
a. Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (CJD)
b. mad cow disease
c. Alzheimer's disease
d. tuberculosis
a. Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (CJD)
Which of the following molecules is typically used as a source of energy in active transport?
a. water
b. adenosine triphosphate (ATP)
c. oxygen
d. glucose
b. adenosine triphosphate (ATP)
Which of the following terms is used for the first line of defense against pathogens that consists of natural barriers such as intact skin and mucus?
a. acquired immunity
b. artificial immunity
c. innate immunity
d. passive immunity
c. innate immunity
Stage controls:
a. secure the slide in place.
b. adjust the opening in the stage.
c. adjust the location or height of the stage.
d. connect the base to the head.
c. adjust the location or height of the stage.
According to Guideline I for Laundering of Scrub Attire, scrub attire should be laundered in a home washing machine to reduce the risk of cross-contamination.
a. True
b. False
b. false
The most transmitted pathogen in the surgical environment is:
a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
b. Staphylococcus aureus.
c. Escherichia coli.
d. Streptococcus pneumoniae.
b. Staphylococcus aureus
The primary function of the nucleus in eukaryotic cells is:
a. protein synthesis.
b. carbohydrate synthesis.
c. energy production.
d. genetic control.
d. genetic control.
The main category of a plant or animal in the Linnean classification system is:
a. species
b. family
c. genus
d. kingdom
b. family
Mycology is the study of:
a. parasites.
b. bacteria.
c. viruses.
d. fungi.
d. fungi.
Guideline IV for Use of Eye Protection During Surgical Procedures suggests that used goggles should be discarded in regular waste bins.
a. True
b. False
b. false
Viruses replicate by:
a. undergoing meiosis.
b. dividing like bacteria.
c. exchanging genetic material with other viruses.
d. using the host cell to replicate its own genetic material.
d. using the host cell to replicate its own genetic material.
Which of the following terms refers to round-shaped bacteria?
a. coccobacilli
b. streptococci
c. bacilli
d. cocci
d. cocci
What color do Gram-positive bacteria retain after Gram staining?
a. no color changes
b. purple
c. red
d. blue
b. purple
One of the protective measures for the surgical team that should be implemented when working with sharps on a patient with a contagious disease is to:
a. use a sharp container with magnetic strip.
b. use a neutral zone.
c. recap hypodermic needles.
d. create a distinct sharp zone on the back table.
b. use a neutral zone.
Which of the following staining methods is specifically used to identify bacteria such as M. tuberculosis?
a. acid-fast staining
b. differential staining
c. Gram staining
d. simple staining
a. acid-fast staining
What does the term nomenclature mean?
a. describing the habitant of living organisms
b. naming living organisms
c. organizing living organisms into taxonomic categories
d. classifying organisms based on their characteristics
b. naming living organisms
Public health initiatives are safe practices that are established and enforced to protect the health of the citizens by preventing the spread of infectious diseases.
a. True
b. False
a. True
In healthcare, the acronym HAI stands for:
a. hospital-acquired infection.
b. healthcare-associated infection.
c. highly acquired infection.
d. host-affected infection.
b. healthcare-associated infection.
The mask must always be worn in restricted areas, including the sub-sterile rooms and scrub sinks.
a. True
b. False
a.true
Which of the following bacteria is known for causing postoperative surgical site infections and resistant to methicillin?
a. streptococcus
b. S. epidermis
c. S. aureus
d. Clostridium difficile
c. S. aureus
The part of the microscope that allows the viewer to select an objective lenses power is the:
a. eyepiece.
b. objective lens.
c. diopter adjustment.
d. illuminator.
b. objective lens.
Which of the following methods allows for periodical transfer of the organism to a fresh culture medium to maintain its viability?
a. subculturing
b. cryopreservation
c. selective
d. complex
a. subculturing
The primary goal of the first step in a culture and sensitivity test is to:
a) identify the antibiotic resistance of the organism.
b) allow the microorganisms to colonize and grow.
c) transport the sample to the lab.
d) test the organisms’ sensitivity to antibiotics.
b) allow the microorganisms to colonize and grow.
The purpose of counterstaining in acid-fast staining is to:
a) remove excess stain.
b) identify endospores.
c) differentiate between Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria.
d) provide contrast and visualize non-acid cells.
d) provide contrast and visualize non-acid cells.
The relationship between human host and indigenous microflora is called:
a) mutualism.
b) symbiosis.
c) mensalism.
d) parasitism.
b) symbiosis.
The sample for a culture and sensitivity test is usually collected in:
a) a culture medium.
b) a microscope slide.
c) a petri dish.
d) a test tube.
d) a test tube.
The point at which a microbe enters the human body is the:
a) portal of entry.
b) portal of infection.
c) portal of transmission.
d) portal of exit.
a) portal of entry.
Vaginal yeast infection is caused by:
a) Blastomyces dermatitidis.
b) Pneumocystis jirovecii.
c) Histoplasma capsulatum.
d) Candida albicans.
d) Candida albicans.
Chest tubes must be attached to a water-seal drainage system:
a) to add weight to the drainage device to keep it upright.
b) to keep the microbial count in the drainage from reentering.
c) to keep the pleural cavity humid.
d) to keep air from reentering thoracic space to reestablish negative pressure for respiration.
d) to keep air from reentering thoracic space to reestablish negative pressure for respiration.
GI, chest, and airway are types of:
a) drains.
b) instruments.
c) tubes.
d) catheters.
c) tubes.
How should loose Ray-Tec sponges be handled during laparotomy procedures when the peritoneum is open?
a) They should be opened to full length.
b) They should be mounted on a ring forceps as “sponge sticks.”
c) They cannot be used at all.
d) They should have rings attached to them.
b) They should be mounted on a ring forceps as “sponge sticks.”
In general, after which of the following periods of time should a pneumatic tourniquet be deflated after continuous use on a lower extremity?
a) thirty minutes
b) ninety minutes
c) one hour
d) two hours
b) ninety minutes
In medical terminology, which of the following suffixes indicates an instrument for cutting?
a) -tome
b) -scope
c) -orrhaphy
d) -graph
a) -tome
Into which of the following classification of dressings would body jackets, Minerva jackets, and spica casts fall?
a) pressure
b) bulky
c) one-layer
d) rigid
d) rigid
Kerlix fluffs, ABD pads, and plain 4 x 4 gauze sponges are examples of which of the following parts of a three-layer dressing?
a) absorbent intermediate layer
b) permeable contact layer
c) occlusive contact layer
d) binding outer layer
a) absorbent intermediate layer
Metzenbaum, tenotomy, and Potts-Smith are examples of which of the following types of instruments?
a) tissue forceps
b) scissors
c) retractors
d) hemostats
b) scissors
Neurosurgical sponges used to protect delicate neural tissue are called:
a) Kitners.
b) Ray-Tecs.
c) cottonoids.
d) laps.
c) cottonoids.
Normal saline, antibiotic, and Dakin’s solution are used to facilitate mechanical debridement in which of the following types of dressings?
a) bolster
b) perineal
c) wet-to-dry
d) pressure
c) wet-to-dry
One-layer dressings are used on large draining wounds to facilitate frequent dressing changes.
a) False
b) True
a) False
Opsite, collodion, adhesive gels, and Steri-strips are examples of which of the following types of surgical dressings?
a) pressure
b) rigid
c) one-layer
d) three-layer
c) one-layer
Penrose drains are active drains that are connected to a reservoir called a J-P bulb or “grenade.”
a) False
b) True
a) False
Pulse lavage is often used during which of the following procedures?
a) arthroscopy
b) arthroplasty
c) turbinectomy
d) myringotomy
b) arthroplasty
Syringes can be made of plastic, glass, metal, rubber, or a combination of any of these.
a) False
b) True
b) True
The #12 blade is used almost exclusively for which of the following surgical procedures?
a) tonsillectomy
b) craniotomy
c) arthroscopy
d) laparotomy
a) tonsillectomy
The following should never be cut into pieces:
a) gauze packing strips.
b) radiopaque surgical sponges.
c) occlusive contact dressing.
d) incise drapes.
b) radiopaque surgical sponges.
Ancef, Kefzol, and Keflex are brand names for which of the following categories of antibiotic/anti-infective agents?
a) anti-amebicides
b) penicillins
c) cephalosporins
d) aminoglycosides
c) cephalosporins
Antibiotics and the anticoagulant heparin are frequently diluted with normal saline to achieve a more powerful dosage than the original strength.
a) True
b) False
b) False
Avitene is the brand name for which of the following types of chemical hemostatic agents?
a) absorbable gelatin
b) topical thrombin
c) microfibrillar collagen
d) oxidized cellulose
c) microfibrillar collagen
Benzodiazepines are classified by the Controlled Substances Act as which of the following classes?
a) Class III
b) Class V
c) Class IV
d) Class II
c) Class IV
Cough syrups containing codeine would be placed in which of the following classifications of controlled substances?
a) Class IV
b) Class II
c) Class V
d) Class I
c) Class V
Diminished cardiac and urinary output, hypotension, and tachycardia are signs of:
a) shock.
b) disseminated intravascular coagulopathy.
c) pseudocholinesterase deficiency syndrome.
d) malignant hyperthermia.
a) shock.
Drugs used for ophthalmological procedures are similar to those for systemic use but must be:
a) less concentrated.
b) less viscoelastic.
c) more diluted.
d) more pure.
d) more pure.
A continuous suturing technique that places sutures in the endothelial layer of the skin in short bites is called a:
a) traction suture.
b) mattress suture.
c) subcuticular suture.
d) purse-string suture.
c) subcuticular suture.
A patient undergoing chemotherapy and radiation therapy for cancer might experience prolonged wound healing due to:
a) immunosuppressed status.
b) Class I, primary union wound.
c) hyperactive immune response.
d) vascular proliferation.
a) immunosuppressed status.
A surgeon’s choice of suture is based on the surgeon’s training, the condition of the patient, the type of wound, and the conditions surrounding the surgical intervention.
a) False
b) True
b) True
A way in which the surgical technologist can assist the surgeon by keeping the suture strand out of the way during a continuous running closure is by:
a) tagging.
b) tracking.
c) pulling.
d) controlling.
d) controlling.
A wound that is not sutured and that gradually fills in by granulation heals by _ intention.
a) second
b) fourth
c) third
d) first
a) second
An example of acceptable and safe intraoperative autotransfusion blood collection is:
a) bloody ascites fluid drained from the peritoneal cavity during surgery for ovarian cancer.
b) blood collected during a major abdominal trauma procedure with small bowel perforation.
c) blood collected from sponges into a basin of sterile saline during repair of ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm.
d) bloody fluid suctioned during liver resection with use of reconstituted topical thrombin spray on oozing bleeders.
c) blood collected from sponges into a basin of sterile saline during repair of ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm.
Another name for a suture ligature is a:
a) tie-on-a-passer.
b) free tie.
c) stick tie.
d) ligature reel.
c) stick tie.
Approximation is bringing two sides of a wound together closely with sutures, wound zippers, or special adhesives so that the wound can heal from side to side.
a) False
b) True
b) True
Avitene®, Gelfoam®, and Surgicel® are examples of mechanical methods of hemostasis.
a) True
b) False
b) False
By which of the following intentions would a purulent wound treated by debridement and placement of medicated packing, then sutured after resolution of the infection heal?
a) primary union
b) first intention
c) second intention
d) third intention
d) third intention
Elective surgery patients may be asked to discontinue use of which of the following medications to prevent drug-therapy-induced platelet dysfunctions?
a) antibiotics
b) aspirin
c) anticonvulsants
d) antacids
b) aspirin
Evisceration of an abdominal wound is:
a) filling in of a wound from bottom up.
b) excessive scar formation after surgery.
c) single- or multi-layer separation of wound edges.
d) protrusion of viscera through all tissue layers.
d) protrusion of viscera through all tissue layers.
In general, a monofilament suture would require _ knot throws for security than a multifilament suture.
a) more, but only if coated
b) the same number of
c) more
d) fewer
c) more
Incisional, nosocomial, and deep are all types of:
a) wound approximation techniques.
b) radiation treatments.
c) microbial preventions.
d) surgical site infections.
d) surgical site infections.
Inflammation can BEST be described as:
a) an abnormal physiologic response to tissue injury.
b) a normal protective response to tissue injury.
c) an exaggerated immune system response.
d) a disease process accompanied by fever.
b) a normal protective response to tissue injury.
Kittners, cottonoids, and laps are surgical:
a) tourniquets.
b) clamps.
c) ligatures.
d) sponges.
d) sponges.
Ligatures are used to:
a) prevent evisceration.
b) tie off blood vessels.
c) approximate tissue layers.
d) eliminate dead space.
b) tie off blood vessels.
Monofilament sutures with memory, such as chromic gut and nylon, should be stretched tightly to remove all kinks in the strand before being handed to the surgeon.
a) True
b) False
b) False
A surgical technologist scrubs the area of the arms up to:
a) two inches below the elbows.
b) one inch above the elbows.
c) two inches above the elbows.
d) one inch below the elbows.
c) two inches above the elbows.
An assistant may be needed to properly perform which of the following types of surgical skin prep?
a) midline vertical abdominal
b) vaginal/perineal prep in lithotomy position
c) circumferential extremity
d) two-step prep with scrub and paint
c) circumferential extremity
Before opening any supplies for delivery to the sterile field, the following must be verified:
a) the length of time item has been in storage.
b) the initials of person who prepared item.
c) that the package integrity is intact and not violated.
d) the removal of charge sticker.
c) that the package integrity is intact and not violated.
Before the surgical technologist places the basket of instruments on the back table, the circulator verifies that:
a) the filter on the container lid has changed color.
b) the numbers of instruments in the tray are correct on the count sheet from CSPD.
c) the filters on the bottom of the container are intact and the container is dry.
d) the internal indicator has changed color.
c) the filters on the bottom of the container are intact and the container is dry.
By which of the following methods should the one-piece C-arm drape be placed over the upper image intensifier?
a) Keep it folded throughout the process.
b) Use adhesive to attach it securely.
c) Unfold it entirely on the back table.
d) Let it unfold as it is placed over the intensifier.
d) Let it unfold as it is placed over the intensifier.
During the process of setting up the sterile field, efficiency and economy of motion recommend that the surgical technologist (ST):
a) request that circulating RN open all supplies for the case after the ST is gowned and gloved.
b) place as many instruments on the Mayo stand as possible.
c) position the back table close to the door.
d) move items only once if possible.
d) move items only once if possible.
During the surgical skin prep, areas that are considered contaminated should:
a) be scrubbed vigorously and first.
b) be scrubbed separately or last.
c) not be scrubbed at all.
d) need no special attention.
b) be scrubbed separately or last.