Nucleic Acid Synthesis Inhibitors Part 2

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Last updated 8:35 AM on 7/11/26
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54 Terms

1
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What are the structural components of fluoroquinolones?

A carboxyl group, a fluorine atom, and a piperazine ring attached to a quinoline ring.

2
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How do fluoroquinolones behave chemically?

They are amphoteric compounds with poor water solubility at pH 6–8.

3
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Why are fluoroquinolones less effective in acidic urine?

They act as weak bases and have reduced activity in acidic environments.

4
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What bacterial enzymes are inhibited by fluoroquinolones?

DNA gyrase (topoisomerase II) and topoisomerase IV.

5
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What is the function of DNA gyrase?

It allows bacterial DNA to coil, uncoil, and rewind during replication and transcription.

6
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Why is DNA gyrase essential for bacteria?

It relieves torsional stress and permits DNA replication and transcription.

7
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What is the effect of inhibiting DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV?

Disruption of DNA supercoiling, impaired DNA repair, and degradation of chromosomal DNA.

8
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Why are mammalian cells minimally affected by fluoroquinolones?

Mammalian topoisomerases differ structurally from bacterial DNA gyrase.

9
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Are fluoroquinolones bactericidal or bacteriostatic?

Bactericidal.

10
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What is the post-antimicrobial effect of fluoroquinolones?

Persistent suppression of bacterial growth for 4–8 hours after drug exposure.

11
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What are the first-generation quinolones?

Nalidixic acid and oxolinic acid.

12
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Name the second-generation quinolones.

Ciprofloxacin, enoxacin, flumequine, norfloxacin, and ofloxacin.

13
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Name the third-generation quinolones.

Danofloxacin, enrofloxacin, marbofloxacin, pefloxacin, and pradofloxacin.

14
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Name the fourth-generation quinolones.

Moxifloxacin, gatifloxacin, trovafloxacin, gemifloxacin, and garenoxacin.

15
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What is the spectrum of activity of fluoroquinolones?

Broad-spectrum against many Gram-negative organisms and several Gram-positive aerobes.

16
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Which Gram-negative bacteria are usually susceptible to fluoroquinolones?

Escherichia coli, Klebsiella spp., Proteus spp., Salmonella spp., and Enterobacter spp.

17
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Which fluoroquinolone has the greatest activity against Pseudomonas spp.?

Ciprofloxacin.

18
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Which Gram-positive bacteria are commonly susceptible to fluoroquinolones?

Staphylococcus aureus, Staphylococcus pseudintermedius, and other Staphylococcus spp.

19
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Which intracellular pathogen is notably susceptible to fluoroquinolones?

Brucella spp.

20
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Which atypical organisms are susceptible to fluoroquinolones?

Mycoplasma, Rickettsia, and Chlamydia spp.

21
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Which organisms are generally resistant to fluoroquinolones?

Obligate anaerobes and most enterococci.

22
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Which additional organisms may be susceptible to fluoroquinolones?

Nocardia and atypical mycobacteria.

23
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Which generations of fluoroquinolones have improved anaerobic activity?

Third- and fourth-generation fluoroquinolones.

24
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How are fluoroquinolones absorbed after oral administration?

Rapidly, with nearly complete absorption in dogs, cats, and pigs.

25
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How does food affect fluoroquinolone absorption?

It may delay absorption in monogastric animals.

26
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Which substances reduce fluoroquinolone bioavailability?

Antacids containing calcium or magnesium due to chelation.

27
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How are fluoroquinolones absorbed after IM or SC administration?

Rapidly, with nearly 100% bioavailability.

28
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Where do fluoroquinolones distribute in the body?

They penetrate most tissues rapidly because of high lipid solubility.

29
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Which organs contain especially high concentrations of fluoroquinolones?

Kidneys, liver, bile, prostate, bone, ocular fluid, endometrium, and CSF.

30
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Do fluoroquinolones cross the placenta?

Yes.

31
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Which white blood cells accumulate fluoroquinolones?

Phagocytic white blood cells.

32
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What is the major route of fluoroquinolone elimination?

Renal excretion.

33
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Which renal processes eliminate fluoroquinolones?

Glomerular filtration and tubular secretion.

34
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How should fluoroquinolone dosing be adjusted in renal failure?

The dose should be reduced because clearance is impaired.

35
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Which fluoroquinolone is metabolized to ciprofloxacin?

Enrofloxacin.

36
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What is the major cartilage toxicity associated with fluoroquinolones?

Cartilage erosion leading to permanent lameness in growing animals.

37
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Why do fluoroquinolones damage cartilage?

They chelate magnesium, disrupting chondrocyte function.

38
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Why are fluoroquinolones contraindicated in young dogs?

They may cause irreversible cartilage damage during growth.

39
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Which species is especially susceptible to fluoroquinolone-induced retinal degeneration?

Cats.

40
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Which fluoroquinolone carries the greatest risk of retinal toxicity in cats?

Enrofloxacin.

41
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Which fluoroquinolone is considered the least retinotoxic?

Pradofloxacin.

42
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What causes retinal degeneration from fluoroquinolones?

Accumulation of photoreactive drug in the retina leading to reactive oxygen species formation.

43
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What neurologic adverse effect may occur with high doses of fluoroquinolones?

Convulsions due to GABA receptor antagonism.

44
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What gastrointestinal adverse effects are associated with fluoroquinolones?

Vomiting and diarrhea.

45
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Which fluoroquinolones have been associated with antimicrobial-induced colitis?

Ciprofloxacin and moxifloxacin.

46
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What is mitotoxicity?

Damage to mitochondrial topoisomerase or other mitochondrial structures caused by fluoroquinolones.

47
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Which drugs interfere with GI absorption of fluoroquinolones?

Antacids, multivalent cations, and sucralfate.

48
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Which urinary antiseptic decreases the efficacy of fluoroquinolones?

Nitrofurantoin.

49
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Which drug group has increased toxicity when combined with fluoroquinolones?

Methylxanthines such as theophylline, caffeine, and theobromine.

50
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Why do methylxanthines become toxic when given with fluoroquinolones?

Fluoroquinolones inhibit their metabolism, increasing serum concentrations.

51
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Is cross-resistance common among fluoroquinolones?

Yes.

52
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What are the major mechanisms of fluoroquinolone resistance?

Altered topoisomerases, decreased drug permeability, and increased efflux pumps.

53
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Which enzyme is the primary resistance target in Gram-negative bacteria?

DNA gyrase.

54
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Which enzyme is the primary resistance target in Gram-positive bacteria?

Topoisomerase IV.