itm301 final exam prep

[Mod 3] 1. Which part of a MAC address is unique to each manufacturer?

b. The OUI -- The first 24 bits of a MAC (Media Access Control) address are known as the OUI (Organizationally Unique Identifier), which identifies the NIC's manufacturer. The last 24 bits make up the extension identifier or device ID and identify the device itself. The entire MAC address is also called a physical address. The first part of an IP address identifies the network.

[Mod 3] 2. What type of device does a computer turn to when attempting to connect with a host with a known IP address on another network?

a. Default gateway -- The default gateway is the routing device that nodes on the network turn to for access to the outside world. A DNS (Domain Name Service) server helps to find the IP address when that information is not known. A root server is a type of DNS server. A DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) server manages the dynamic distribution of IP addresses to devices on a network.

[Mod 3] 3. What decimal number corresponds to the binary number 11111111?

a. 255 -- The largest possible 8-bit number is 11111111, which is equal to 255 in decimal. When counting 00000000, there are 256 possible 8-bit values for each octet in an IPv4 address. An IPv4 loopback address can fall anywhere in the range of 127.0.0.1 through 127.255.255.254.

[Mod 3] 4. Suppose you send data to the 11111111 11111111 11111111 11111111 IP address on an IPv4 network. To which device(s) are you transmitting?

b. All devices on your local network -- The largest possible IP address in decimal is 255.255.255.255. In binary, this number is written 11111111.11111111.11111111.11111111. The address 255.255.255.255 is used for broadcast messages by TCP/IP background processes, and a broadcast message is read by all devices on your local network.

[Mod 3] 5. When your computer first joins an IPv6 LAN, what is the prefix of the IPv6 address the computer first configures for itself?

d. FE80::/64 -- During IPv6 autoconfiguration, the computer creates its IPv6 address and uses FE80::/64 as the first 64 bits. FF00::/8 is the prefix for multicast addresses. Global unicast addresses begin with 2000::/3. The address ::1/128 is the loopback address and is used to test that an interface and supporting protocol stack is functioning properly.

[Mod 3] 6. If you are connected to a network that uses DHCP, and you need to terminate your Windows workstation's DHCP lease, which command would you use?

a. ipconfig /release -- The command ipconfig /release releases the IP address when dynamic IP addressing is being used. The command ipconfig /renew leases a new IP address from a DHCP server. The ifconfig command is a Linux command. While you can use ifconfig to release an IP address, you don't accomplish this with the /release parameter.

[Mod 3] 7. Which of these commands has no parameters in Windows?

c. hostname -- The hostname command displays a device's host name, either in Windows, UNIX, or Linux systems. In Windows, hostname has no additional parameters. The ping, ipconfig, and nslookup commands offer many parameters and options in Windows.

[Mod 3] 8. Which DNS server offers the most current resolution to a DNS query?

a. Primary DNS server -- A primary DNS server is the authoritative name server for the organization, which is the authority on computer names and their IP addresses for computers in their domains and always holds the most current records. All other DNS servers, such as caching DNS servers and forwarding DNS servers, can only offer aged information held in their caches. Thirteen clusters of root DNS servers hold information used to locate the TLD (top-level domain) servers.

[Mod 3] 9. You have just brought online a new secondary DNS server and notice your network monitoring software reports a significant increase in network traffic. Which two hosts on your network are likely to be causing the increased traffic and why?

b. The secondary and primary DNS servers because the secondary server is requesting zone transfers from the primary server -- When a secondary DNS server needs to update its database or when it comes online for the first time, it makes the request to the primary server for the information. The secondary and primary DNS servers then perform a zone transfer from the primary server to the secondary server.

[Mod 3] 10. Which type of DNS record identifies an email server?

c. MX record -- An MX (mail exchanger) record identifies an email server and is used for email traffic. AAAA (address) records hold the name-to-address mapping for IPv6 addresses. CNAME (canonical name) records hold alternative names for a host. A PTR (pointer) record is used for a reverse lookup, also called rDNS (reverse DNS).

[Mod 3] 11. What is the range of addresses that might be assigned by APIPA?

169.254.0.1 through 169.254.255.254

[Mod 3] 12. You are the network manager for a computer training center that allows students to bring their own laptops to class for learning and taking notes. Students need access to the Internet, so you have configured your network's DHCP server to issue IP addresses automatically. Which DHCP option should you modify to make sure you are not wasting addresses used by students who have left for the day?

Lease time

[Mod 3] 13. You have decided to use SNAT and PAT on your small office network. At minimum, how many IP addresses must you obtain from your ISP for all five clients in your office to be able to access servers on the Internet?

1

[Mod 3] 14. Explain how the bits of an IPv6 address are organized and describe IPv6 shorthand notation.

An IPv6 address has 128 bits that are written as eight blocks (also called quartets) of hexadecimal numbers separated by colons. Each block is 16 bits long. Leading zeroes in a four-character hex block can be eliminated. If blocks contain all zeroes, they can be eliminated and replaced by double colons (::). To avoid confusion, only one set of double colons is used in an IPv6 address.

[Mod 3] 15. FTP sometimes uses a random port for data transfer, but an FTP server always, unless programmed otherwise, listens to the same port for session requests from clients. What port does an FTP server listen on?

21

[Mod 3] 16. You issue a transmission from your workstation to the following socket on your LAN: 10.1.1.145:53. Assuming your network uses standard port designations, what application layer protocol handles your transmission?

DNS (Domain Name Service)

[Mod 3] 17. Suppose you want to change the default port for RDP as a security precaution. What port does RDP use by default, and from what range of numbers should you select a private port number?

3389; 49152 through 65535

[Mod 3] 18. You have just set up a new wireless network at your house, and you want to determine whether your Linux laptop has connected to it and obtained a valid IP address. What command will give you the information you need?

ip address show or ifconfig -a

[Mod 3] 19. While troubleshooting a network connection problem for a coworker, you discover the computer is querying a nonexistent DNS server. What command-line utility can you use to assign the correct DNS server IP address?

nslookup (in interactive mode)

[Mod 3] 20. When running a scan on your computer, you find that a session has been established with a host at the address 208.85.40.44:443. Which application layer protocol is in use for this session? What command-line utility might you use to determine the domain name of the other computer?

Port 443 indicates this is an HTTPS session. nslookup can identify the domain name of the host at that IP address.

[Mod 6] 1. What software allows you to define VMs and manage resource allocation and sharing among VMs on a host computer?

a. Hypervisor -- A hypervisor creates and manages a VM and allocates hardware resources for the host and any of its guest VMs. NFV is the merging of physical and virtual network architecture. SDN is a centralized approach to networking that removes most of the decision-making power from network devices. Terminal emulation allows a remote client to take over and command a host computer.

[Mod 6] 2. What virtual, logically defined device operates primarily at the data link layer to pass frames between nodes?

b. Virtual switch -- A vSwitch (virtual switch) or bridge is a logically defined device that operates at the data link layer to pass frames between nodes. NFV provides flexible, cost-saving options for many types of network devices, including virtual routers, virtual load balancers, and virtual firewalls.

[Mod 6] 3. Which device can manage traffic to multiple servers in a cluster so all servers equally share the traffic?

d. Load balancer -- A load balancer helps to evenly distribute traffic to each device in a server cluster so every device carries a portion of the load. A router directs data between two or more networks. A firewall selectively filters or blocks traffic between networks. A switch logically subdivides a network into smaller, individual collision domains.

[Mod 6] 4. With which network connection type does the VM obtain IP addressing information from its host?

c. NAT mode -- In NAT mode, a VM obtains IP addressing information from its host rather than from a server or router on the physical network. A bridged vNIC obtains its own IP address, default gateway, and subnet mask from a DHCP server on the physical LAN.

[Mod 6] 5. Which type of switch connects all devices in a rack to the rest of the network?

a. ToR switch -- A ToR (top of rack) switch connects all other devices in the rack to the rest of the network. EoR (end of row) switching places several leaf switches in a rack at the end of each row of racks. Core switches support the network's backbone traffic. Spine switches organize traffic and network segments using OSI layer 3 technologies.

[Mod 6] 6. Which cloud service model gives software developers access to multiple platforms for testing code?

b. PaaS -- PaaS (Platform as a Service) provides a platform on which to test or run code without having to manage the underlying server. IaaS provides virtual hardware services. SaaS consists of applications provided through an online user interface. XaaS emphasizes the ability of the cloud to provide any combination of functions.

[Mod 6] 7. When shopping for a new router, what does the MTBF tell you?

c. How long devices like this one will last on average until the next failure -- MTBF (mean time between failures) indicates how long devices like this one will last before the next failure is expected to occur. MTTR (mean time to repair) calculates the average amount of time required to repair a device.

[Mod 6] 8. What information does the switchport port-security command use to restrict access to a switch's interface?

a. MAC address -- The switchport port-security command restricts the number of MAC addresses per port and stores acceptable MAC addresses in a table. Firewalls filter traffic by port number or IP address. A broadcast address is used for managing broadcast traffic on a network.

[Mod 6] 9. Which of the following features of a network connection between a switch and server is not improved by link aggregation?

c. Speed -- Link aggregation isn't about speed of network traffic so much as bandwidth, fault tolerance, and resource availability.

[Mod 6] 10. Which cloud management technique executes a series of tasks in a workflow?

d. Orchestration -- Orchestration allows the automation of many individual tasks to work together in a robust workflow. Automation is a programmed, computer-generated response to a specific event. IaC is the process of using text-based commands to create and manage cloud resources. An SLA defines service standards.

[Mod 6] 11. List two advantages to using virtualization on a network.

Answers will include two of the following: Efficient use of resources; Cost and energy savings; Fault and threat isolation; Simple backups, recovery, and replication.

[Mod 6] 12. List available options for connecting to cloud resources.

Organizations generally offer an array of options, including Internet, VPN (virtual private network), remote access connections (such as SSH and RDP), a leased line from an ISP, and a private or dedicated direct connection.

[Mod 6] 13. How does a vNIC get a MAC address without manual intervention?

Upon creation, each vNIC is automatically assigned a MAC address.

[Mod 6] 14. What type of adapters are required on servers in an FCoE storage network?

CNA (converged network adapter)

[Mod 6] 15. What are two use cases for a VIP (virtual IP address)?

A single VIP can be used to represent a cluster of resources such as web servers. Alternatively, it might be used to assign a different IP address to multiple instances of the same service running on a single machine.

[Mod 6] 16. Which type of hypervisor is installed directly on top of the server's firmware?

Type 1 hypervisor

[Mod 6] 17. Only one exists on a network using STP.

Root bridge

[Mod 6] 18. What protocol is most often used to bond ports between a switch and a busy server?

LACP (Link Aggregation Control Protocol)

[Mod 6] 19. How is licensing an important concern when using virtualization?

Each virtualized device needs its own license in addition to a license for the hypervisor.

[Mod 6] 20. What kind of device can be used to configure and manage physical and virtual networking devices across the network?

SDN controller or network controller

[Mod 7] 1. How many bits of a class A IP address are used for host information?

c. 24 bits -- In classful addressing, class A networks use 24 bits of a 32-bit IPv4 address to identify the host, and only the first eight bits are used to identify the network.

[Mod 7] 2. What is the formula for determining the number of possible hosts on a network?

d. 2h - 2 = Z -- Raising 2 to the power of the number of host bits yields the number of possible IP addresses in a subnet. You must subtract 2 to determine the number of available host addresses (network ID and broadcast address). The formula 2n - Y determines the number of network bits borrowed from host bits, or the number of subnets.

[Mod 7] 3. Which of the following is not a good reason to segment a network?

c. To increase the number of networking devices on a network -- Segmenting a network enhances security, improves performance, and simplifies troubleshooting, but increasing the number of networking devices is not a goal of subnetting.

[Mod 7] 4. What is the greatest number of bits you could borrow from the host portion of a class B subnet mask and still have at least 130 hosts per subnet?

b. 8 bits -- Using 2h - 2 = Z, 8 host bits yields 256 - 2 = 254 available host addresses. Seven host bits would only allow 126 hosts per subnet.

[Mod 7] 5. What do well-chosen subnets accomplish?

b. Network documentation is easier to manage. -- Well-chosen subnets make network documentation easier to manage; IP address spaces shouldn't overlap; routing is more efficient when address spaces are mathematically related; problems are easier to locate.

[Mod 7] 6. Which formulas can be used to calculate the magic number? Choose two

a. 256 - the interesting octet; d. 2h -- The magic number can be calculated by subtracting the interesting octet value from 256 or by raising 2 to the power of the number of host bits in the interesting octet.

[Mod 7] 7. Which hexadecimal block in an IPv6 address is used for the Subnet ID?

c. The fourth one -- The first four blocks normally identify the network and serve as the network prefix. The fourth hexadecimal block in the site prefix can be altered to create subnets within a site. The last four blocks identify the host interface.

[Mod 7] 8. Which assignment technique requires a RADIUS server?

a. Dynamic VLAN assignment -- A dynamic VLAN assignment can be made after successful authentication with a RADIUS server. A static VLAN assignment is made based on the switch port. A dynamic IP address is assigned by DHCP. A static IP address is assigned by a network admin.

[Mod 7] 9. Which port mode on a switch enables that port to manage traffic for multiple VLANs?

d. Trunk -- The trunk port connects a switch to a networking device and can manage traffic from multiple VLANs. An access port typically carries traffic for only one VLAN.

[Mod 7] 10. Which IEEE standard determines how VLANs work on a network?

d. 802.1Q -- Port tagging is specified in the IEEE 802.1Q standard. 802.1X is EAPoL. 802.11 standards are Wi-Fi. 802.3af specifies PoE.

[Mod 7] 11. What is the network ID with CIDR notation for the IP address 172.16.32.108 whose subnet mask is 255.255.255.0?

172.16.32.0/24 -- A subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 indicates 24 bits for network information, written as /24.

[Mod 7] 12. Suppose your company has leased one class C license, 120.10.10.0, and wants to sublease the first half of these IP addresses to another company. What is the CIDR notation for the subnet to be subleased? What is the subnet mask for this network?

120.10.10.0/25; 255.255.255.128 -- A class C network uses 24 bits for network information. Borrowing one host bit divides the network into two subnets, each with a /25 subnet mask (255.255.255.128).

[Mod 7] 13. Subnetting operates at the __________ layer while VLANs function at the _________ layer.

Network; Data link

[Mod 7] 14. Which VLAN on a switch manages untagged frames?

The native VLAN

[Mod 7] 15. An attacker configures a VLAN frame with two tags instead of just one, so the frame gets forwarded into a protected VLAN it's not authorized to access. What kind of attack is this?

VLAN hopping (double tagging)

[Mod 7] 16. What area of a network can provide less stringent security so a web server is more accessible from the open Internet?

Screened subnet (DMZ - demilitarized zone)

[Mod 7] 17. On which networking device do you configure VLANs?

Switch (managed switch)

[Mod 7] 18. Which IP addressing technique subnets a subnet to create subnets of various sizes?

VLSM (variable length subnet mask)

[Mod 7] 19. Which VLAN type would be the best fit for a company's web servers that need to be accessible from the Internet but should not be able to communicate with each other?

Isolated VLAN

[Mod 7] 20. Which Cisco command lists configured VLANs on a switch?

show vlan

[Mod 8] 1. Which OSI layer is responsible for directing data from one LAN to another?

b. Network layer -- Network layer protocols are responsible for directing data between LANs. LANs and WANs use the same protocols from OSI layers 3 and above.

[Mod 8] 2. What kind of route is created when a network administrator configures a router to use a specific path between nodes?

b. Static route -- A network administrator configures static routes to direct messages along specific paths. A router automatically calculates dynamic routes. The default route is used if no other route matches. Traceroute is a command-line utility.

[Mod 8] 3. When a router can't determine a path to a message's destination, where does it send the message?

d. Gateway of last resort -- The gateway of last resort accepts unroutable messages from other routers. The default gateway is where hosts send all routable messages.

[Mod 8] 4. A routing protocol's reliability and priority are rated by what measurement?

d. AD -- Each routing protocol is assigned a default AD (administrative distance), indicating the protocol's reliability. MTU is the largest packet size allowed without fragmentation. Latency is the delay between transmission and receipt.

[Mod 8] 5. Which routing protocol does an edge router use to collect data to build its routing tables for paths across the Internet?

b. BGP -- BGP (Border Gateway Protocol) is the only current EGP (exterior gateway protocol), dubbed the "protocol of the Internet." RIPv2 and OSPF are interior gateway protocols.

[Mod 8] 6. What is the lowest layer of the OSI model at which LANs and WANs support the same protocols?

b. Layer 3 -- Both LANs and WANs use the same protocols from OSI layers 3 and above; they may differ at layers 1-2.

[Mod 8] 7. What kind of device can monitor a connection at the demarc but cannot interpret data?

d. Smartjack -- A smartjack (INID) can provide diagnostic information about the interface. A line driver is essentially a repeater. The CSU/DSU serves as the endpoint for a dedicated connection. The DTE is the customer's endpoint device on a WAN.

[Mod 8] 8. What specifications define the standards for cable broadband?

d. DOCSIS -- Cable broadband was standardized by DOCSIS (Data Over Cable Service Interface Specifications). DSL operates over the PSTN/POTS. HFC networks use fiber and coax. FTTC runs fiber to a nearby pole/cabinet.

[Mod 8] 9. What method does a GSM network use to separate data on a channel?

c. TDMA -- GSM data is separated by timeslots using TDMA (time division multiple access), similar to TDM but from multiple sources. SIM cards hold subscription data. CDMA spreads a signal over a wider bandwidth (spread-spectrum).

[Mod 8] 10. Which of these cellular technologies offers the fastest speeds?

b. LTE-A -- LTE-A (LTE-Advanced) can realistically approach true 4G standards. CDMA and GSM were originally 2G technologies.

[Mod 8] 11. Where is an MPLS label inserted into a message's headers?

MPLS labels together are sometimes called a shim because of their placement between layer 2 and layer 3 information ("layer 2.5").

[Mod 8] 12. What four functions do all routers perform?

1. Connect dissimilar networks. 2. Interpret Layers 3 and 4 addressing and other information. 3. Determine the best path for data to follow. 4. Reroute traffic if a primary path is down but another path is available.

[Mod 8] 13. What database does a router consult before determining the most efficient path for delivering a message?

Its routing table

[Mod 8] 14. Give three examples of routing metrics used by routers to determine the best of various available routing paths.

(Any three) Hop count, theoretical bandwidth, actual throughput, path latency (or delay), path load, MTU, cost, reliability, network topology

[Mod 8] 15. List three IGPs (interior gateway protocols).

(Any three) RIP, RIPv2, OSPF, IS-IS, EIGRP

[Mod 8] 16. How can you create a private and secure connection with your cloud network over the Internet?

A VPN travels over an Internet connection to give direct and secure access to cloud resources.

[Mod 8] 17. List three transport methods that can be used to support an SD-WAN.

Any three WAN connectivity methods, such as DSL, cable broadband, fiber broadband, leased line, MPLS, cellular, and satellite.

[Mod 8] 18. When you list a router's routing table, one of the routes is labeled with an S. Which routing protocol was used to create this route?

None -- it's a static route configured by a network administrator.

[Mod 8] 19. What command will ensure the configuration changes you made to a switch will persist after you restart the switch?

copy running-config startup-config (copy run start)

[Mod 8] 20. What device must be installed on a DSL network to protect the sound quality of phone calls?

A splitter

[Mod 9] 1. Your organization has just approved a special budget for a network security upgrade. What procedure should you conduct to develop your recommendations for the upgrade priorities?

d. Posture assessment -- A posture assessment is a thorough examination of each aspect of the network to determine how it might be compromised. A data breach is unauthorized access to sensitive data. A security audit is a sophisticated posture assessment conducted by an accredited company. An exploit is taking advantage of a vulnerability.

[Mod 9] 2. Which type of DoS attack orchestrates an attack bounced off uninfected computers?

c. DRDoS attack -- A DRDoS (distributed reflection DoS) attack is bounced off uninfected computers, called reflectors, before being directed at the target. Ransomware locks a user's data until a ransom is paid. A PDoS attack damages a device's firmware beyond repair.

[Mod 9] 3. A company accidentally sends a newsletter with a mistyped website address pointing to a spoofed website that collects information from people who make the same typo. What kind of attack is this?

a. Phishing -- Phishing is communication that appears to come from a legitimate source and requests access or authentication information. Tailgating is following an authorized person into a secure area. Quid pro quo offers a free gift/service in exchange for private info. Baiting leaves an infected device for someone to take.

[Mod 9] 4. A former employee discovers his account credentials still give him access to his old company's servers and demonstrates this to friends. What kind of attack is this?

b. Insider threat -- When a trusted person develops malicious intent, this presents an insider threat. Least privilege limits access/privileges to what's needed. A vulnerability is a weakness that could lead to compromise. A DoS attack denies legitimate users access.

[Mod 9] 5. What type of attack relies on spoofing?

a. Deauth attack -- In a deauth attack, the attacker sends spoofed deauthentication frames to knock clients off a wireless network. A friendly DoS attack is unintentional. Tailgating follows someone into a secure area. Pen testing identifies weaknesses ethically.

[Mod 9] 6. You need to securely store handheld radios so all your techs can access them and you can track who has them. What's the best way?

b. Smart locker -- A smart locker allows controlled, trackable access to equipment checked out for temporary use. Locking racks restrict access to installed servers/routers/switches. Locking cabinets can't track who accessed items. An access control vestibule (mantrap) is a confined space between two locking doors.

[Mod 9] 7. Leading up to the year 2000, many expected computer systems to fail when clocks turned to January 1, 2000. What type of threat was this?

b. Logic bomb -- A logic bomb is code that starts when certain conditions are met. Ransomware locks data until paid. A virus replicates to infect more computers. A worm runs independently and travels between computers/networks.

[Mod 9] 8. Which of the following attack simulations detect vulnerabilities and attempt to exploit them? Choose two.

a. Red team-blue team exercise; d. Pen testing -- In a red team-blue team exercise, the red team attacks and the blue team defends. Pen testing begins with a vulnerability assessment then attempts to exploit found vulnerabilities. A vulnerability assessment identifies but doesn't exploit. A security audit is a sophisticated posture assessment.

[Mod 9] 9. Which of the following is considered a secure protocol?

b. SSH -- Secure protocols include SSH and HTTPS, instead of insecure protocols like Telnet and FTP.

[Mod 9] 10. A company wants employees to sign a document detailing project-related information that shouldn't be discussed outside the team. What type of document should they use?

b. NDA -- An NDA (non-disclosure agreement) defines what confidential and private mean to the organization. An AUP explains what users can/cannot do on a network. MDM automates enrollment and enforces security restrictions on devices. BYOD is allowing personal devices for work.

[Mod 9] 11. What is the difference between a vulnerability and an exploit?

A vulnerability is a weakness that could lead to compromised information or unauthorized access. An exploit is the act of taking advantage of a vulnerability.

[Mod 9] 12. What are the four phases in the social engineering attack cycle?

1) Research. 2) Building trust. 3) Exploit. 4) Exit.

[Mod 9] 13. List five subtypes of DoS attacks.

Distributed DoS, distributed reflection DoS, amplified DRDoS, permanent DoS, and friendly DoS

[Mod 9] 14. What type of scan process might identify that Telnet is running on a server?

Port scanning

[Mod 9] 15. Give an example of biometric detection.

Iris color patterns, hand geometry, facial recognition, or fingerprints

[Mod 9] 16. What unique characteristic of zero-day exploits makes them so dangerous?

The vulnerability is exploited before the software developer can provide a solution, or before the user applies the published solution.

[Mod 9] 17. What steps should your company take to protect data on discarded devices?

IT assets must be carefully tracked during and after service. Many companies hire professional disposal services to sanitize or destroy devices so no data can be recovered.

[Mod 9] 18. A neighbor hacks into your secured wireless network on a regular basis, but you didn't give her the password. What loophole was most likely left open?

The default password was not changed.

[Mod 9] 19. Which form of SHA was developed by private designers?

SHA-3

[Mod 9] 20. Why might organizations be willing to take on the risk of BYOD?

BYOD is cheaper to implement and tends to improve efficiency and morale for employees/students.