Chapter 12-24 Exam

A medication with antagonistic properties is one that:

blocks receptor sites and prevents other chemicals from attaching to them.

An EMT may administer aspirin to a patient if:

Authorization from medical control has been obtained

Aspirin is beneficial to patients suspected of having a heart attack because it:

prevents the aggregation of platelets

In ________ administration, you are administering medication to yourself or your partner

peer-assisted

Nitroglycerin, when given to patients with cardiac-related chest pain:

relaxes the walls of the coronary arteries

Separation is especially an issue with medicine used as a(n):

suspension

The _______ of a medication usually dictates the route by which it will be administered.

form

The medical term for a low blood glucose level is:

hypoglycemia

The process by which medications travel through the body tissues until they reach the bloodstream is called:

absorption

The term "pharmacology" is MOST accurately defined as:

The study of drugs and their actions on the body

A 20-year-old male has a large laceration to his wrist. He is holding a blood-soaked

towel over the wound, but it continues to bleed rapidly. You should:

apply a tourniquet proximal to the wrist.

A 70-year-old female was recently discharged from the hospital following a total hip

replacement. Today, she presents with restlessness, tachycardia, and a blood pressure

of 90/64 mm Hg. Her skin is hot and moist. You should be MOST suspicious that she

is experiencing:

septic shock

All of the following conditions should make you suspect shock, EXCEPT:

A. ischemic stroke.

B. spinal injury.

C. anaphylaxis.

D. severe infection.

ischemic stroke

Capillary sphincters are:

circular muscular walls that regulate blood flow through the capillaries.

Cardiogenic shock may result from all of the following, EXCEPT:

A. increased preload.

B. heart attack.

C. poor contractility.

D. increased afterload.

increased preload

Clinical signs of compensated shock include all of the following, EXCEPT:

A. rapid, shallow breathing

B. cool and clammy skin.

C. absent peripheral pulses.

D. restlessness or anxiety.

C. absent peripheral pulses

Distributive shock occurs when:

widespread dilation of the blood vessels causes blood to pool in the vascular beds.

Hypovolemic shock caused by severe burns is the result of a loss of:

plasma

In an acute injury setting, neurogenic shock is commonly accompanied by:

hypothermia

Neurogenic shock occurs when:

failure of the nervous system causes widespread vasodilation.

A 60-year-old man is found to be unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic. You should:

begin CPR until an AED is available

A patient should be placed in the recovery position when he or she:

is unresponsive, uninjured, and breathing adequately.

Complications associated with chest compressions include all of the following,

EXCEPT:

A. rib fractures.

B. liver laceration.

C. gastric distention.

D. a fractured sternum.

C. gastric distention

CPR retraining is the MOST effective when it:

involves hands-on practice.

CPR will NOT be effective if the patient is:

prone

Gastric distention will MOST likely Occur:

if you ventilate a patient too quickly.

If gastric distention begins to make positive-pressure ventilation difficult, you should:

reposition the patient's airway

In most cases, cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is caused by:

Respiratory arrest

In two-rescuer adult CPR, you should deliver a compression to ventilation ratio of:

30:2

Initial treatment to dislodge a severe foreign body airway obstruction in a responsive

infant involves:

back slaps

A patient who presents with a headache, fever, confusion, and red blotches on his or

her skin should be suspected of having:

meningitis

After sizing up the scene of a patient with a possible infectious disease, your next

priority should be to:

take standard precautions.

An index of suspicion is MOST accurately defined as:

your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying and unseen injuries or illness.

An infectious disease is MOST accuratelv defined as:

a medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small, harmful organisms within the body.

Factors that increase the risk for developing methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus

aureus (MRSA) include:

prolonged hospitalization, especially in an intensive care unit.

Hepatitis B is more virulent than hepatitis C, which means that it:

has a greater ability to produce disease.

In addition to obtaining a SAMPLE history and asking questions related to the chief

complaint, what else should you specifically inquire about when assessing a patient

with a potentially infectious disease?

recent travel

In contrast to the assessment of a trauma patient, assessment of a medical patient:

is focused on the nature of illness, the patient's chief complaint, and his or her symptoms.

It is especially important to assess pulse, sensation, and movement in all extremities

as well as pupillary reactions in patients with a suspected ___________ problem.

neurologic

Patients with tuberculosis pose the greatest risk for transmitting the disease when

they:

Cough

A conscious and alert 29-year-old female with a history of asthma complains of

difficulty breathing that began after her morning jog. The temperature outside is 40°F

(5°C). On exam, you hear bilateral expiratory wheezing. After providing supplemental

oxygen, you should:

determine if she has been prescribed a beta-agonist inhaler.

A pleural effusion is MOST accurately defined as:

fluid accumulation outside the lung.

Albuterol is a generic name for:

Ventolin

Alkalosis is a condition that occurs when:

blood acidity is reduced by excessive breathing.

Common signs and symptoms of acute hyperventilation syndrome include:

tachypnea and tingling in the extremities.

Dyspnea is MOST accurately defined as:

shortness of breath or difficulty breathing.

Harsh, high-pitched inspiratory sounds are characteristic of:

stridor

In order for efficient pulmonary gas exchange to occur:

oxygen and carbon dioxide must be able to freely diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane.

In what area of the lungs does respiration occur?

alveoli

The two processes that occur during respiration are:

inspiration and expiration.

A dissecting aortic aneurysm occurs when:

the inner layers of the aorta become separated.

Cardiogenic shock following AMI is caused by:

decreased pumping force of the heart muscle.

Most patients are instructed by their physician to take up to___________doses of nitroglycerin before calling EMS.

Three

Prior to attaching the AED to a cardiac arrest patient, the EMT should:

dry the chest if it is wet

The electrical impulse generated by the heart originates in the:

coronary sinus

The iliac arteries immediately subdivide into the:

femoral arteries

The right coronary artery supplies blood to the.

right ventricle and inferior wall of the left ventricle.

When documenting a patient's description of his or her chest pain or discomfort, the

EMT should:

use the patient's own words.

Which of the following blood vessels transports oxygenated blood?

pulmonary veins

Which of the following signs is commonly observed in patients with right-sided heart failure?

dependent edema

A 40-year-old patient without a history of seizures experiences a generalized (tonic-clonic) seizure. The LEAST likelv cause of this seizure is

epilepsy.

A patient who is experiencing aphasia is:

unable to produce or understand speech.

Components of the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale include:

arm drift, speech, and facial droop.

Febrile seizures:

are usually benign but should be evaluated.

The most basic functions of the body, such as breathing, blood pressure, and swallowing, are controlled by the:

brain stem

The spinal cord exits the cranium through the:

foramen magnum

The three major parts of the brain are the:

cerebrum, cerebellum, brain stem

Which of the following clinical signs is MOST suggestive of a ruptured aneurysm?

sudden, severe headache

Which of the following findings should concern the EMT the MOST when assessing a

patient who complains of a headache?

Neck stiffness or pain

Which of the following MOST accurately describes the cause of an ischemic stroke?

blockage of a cerebral artery

A 60-year-old female presents with a tearing sensation in her lower back. Her skin is

sweaty, and she is tachycardic. The EMT should suspect:

aortic aneurysm

Most patients with abdominal pain prefer to:

lie on their side with their knees drawn into the abdomen.

Pain that may be perceived at a distant point on the surface of the body, such as the back or shoulder, is called:

referred pain

Solid abdominal organs include the:

spleen, kidneys, and pancreas.

The kidneys help to requlate blood pressure by:

removing sodium and water from the body.

The parietal peritoneum lines the:

walls of the abdominal cavity

Which of the following conditions is more common in women than in men?

cystitis

Which of the following organs assists in the filtration of blood, serves as a blood reservoir, and produces antibodies?

spleen

Which of the following organs would MOST likely bleed profusely if injured?

liver

Which of the following statements regarding the acute abdomen is correct?

The initial pain associated with an acute abdomen tends to be vaque and poorly localized.

A patient who presents with rapid breathing, nausea and vomiting, ringing in the ears,

and hyperthermia should be suspected of ingesting a significant quantity of:

aspirin

A person who routinely misuses a substance and requires increasing amounts to achieve the same effect is experiencing:

tolerance

Airborne substances should be diluted with:

Oxygen

Heroin is an example of a(n):

Opioid

Hypotension, hypoventilation, and pinpoint pupils would be expected following an overdose of:

oxycodone (Percocet)

If you are uncertain how to treat a patient who has been poisoned or exposed to a specific substance, you should:

try to find the container the substance was in.

Signs and symptoms of a sympathomimetic drug overdose include:

tachycardia

The poison control center will provide you with the most information regarding the appropriate treatment for a patient with a drug overdose if the center:

is aware of the substance that is involved.

Which of the following questions would be least pertinent during the initial questioning of a patient who ingested a substance?

Why was the substance ingested?

Your priority in caring for a patient with a surface contact poisoning is to:

avoid contaminating yourself

A physiologic disorder that impairs bodily function when the body seems to be structurally normal is called a:

functional disorder

A technique used to gain insight into a patient's thinking, which involves repeating in question form what the patient has said, is called:

reflective listening

After ensuring his or her own safety, the EMT's next priority when caring for a patient with a behavioral emergency is to:

assess the patient's response to his or her environment

Common causes of acute psychotic behavior include all of the following, EXCEPT:

Alzheimer's disease

Organic brain syndrome is defined as:

a dysfunction of the brain caused by abnormal physical or physiological function.

People at risk for suicide include all of the following, EXCEPT:

married males older than 30 years

Posttraumatic stress disorder can happen after:

exposure to or injury from a traumatic occurrence

Signs of excited delirium include:

diaphoresis, tachycardia, and hallucinations

The first step in assessing a patient with a behavioral emergency is to:

ensure your safety.

Which of the following statements regarding the physical examination of a patient with a behavioral problem is correct?

Although the physical exam can be difficult, the patient's emotional state may be determined by noting facial expressions, pulse rate, and respirations.