Respiratory and Kidney Physiology: Gas Exchange, Regulation, and Filtration

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87 Terms

1
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Q: What is the conducting zone?

The portion of the respiratory tract that transports, humidifies, warms, and filters air; no gas exchange occurs.

2
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Q: What structures belong to the conducting zone?

Nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles.

3
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Q: What is the respiratory zone?

The region where gas exchange occurs, including respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, and alveoli.

4
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Q: What are Type I alveolar cells?

Thin epithelial cells forming most of the alveolar wall; primary site of gas exchange.

5
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Q: What are Type II alveolar cells?

Cells that produce surfactant to reduce surface tension in alveoli.

6
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Q: What is the mucociliary escalator?

System of mucus and cilia that traps and moves debris out of the airways.

7
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Q: What is Boyle's law?

Gas pressure is inversely proportional to volume; governs ventilation.

8
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Q: Describe the rest phase of breathing.

Alveolar pressure equals atmospheric pressure; no air movement.

9
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Q: Describe inspiration.

Diaphragm contracts, thoracic volume increases, alveolar pressure drops, air flows in.

10
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Q: Describe expiration.

Diaphragm relaxes, thoracic volume decreases, alveolar pressure increases, air flows out.

11
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Q: What is tidal volume?

The amount of air inhaled or exhaled during quiet breathing.

12
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Q: What determines air flow?

Pressure gradients created by changes in thoracic volume.

13
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Q: What affects airway resistance?

Bronchiole diameter; constriction increases resistance and dilation decreases it.

14
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Q: What affects lung compliance?

Elasticity of tissue and surface tension; reduced compliance seen in fibrosis.

15
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Q: Function of surfactant?

Reduces alveolar surface tension and prevents collapse.

16
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Q: Law of Laplace in alveoli?

Smaller alveoli require more pressure unless surfactant reduces surface tension.

17
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Q: What is Dalton's law?

Total pressure of a gas mixture equals the sum of partial pressures.

18
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Q: What is Henry's law?

Gas dissolved in a liquid depends on solubility and partial pressure.

19
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Q: Why does CO2 dissolve more easily than O2?

CO2 is 20× more soluble in water than O2.

20
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Q: What drives pulmonary gas exchange?

Partial pressure gradients between alveoli and blood.

21
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Q: Where does systemic gas exchange occur?

Systemic capillaries deliver O2 to tissues and pick up CO2.

22
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Q: What percentage of O2 is carried on hemoglobin?

About 98.5%.

23
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Q: What percentage of O2 is dissolved in plasma?

About 1.5%.

24
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Q: What forms of CO2 transport exist?

Dissolved (7%), carbamino compounds (23%), bicarbonate (70%).

25
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Q: What is the chloride shift?

Exchange of Cl- and HCO3- across RBC membrane during CO2 transport.

26
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Q: What is the Bohr effect?

High CO2/H+ decreases hemoglobin affinity for O2.

27
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Q: How does exercise affect pulmonary blood flow?

Increases lung perfusion and diffusion capacity.

28
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Q: Primary functions of kidneys?

Regulate ECF volume, BP, osmolarity, ions, pH; excrete wastes; produce hormones.

29
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Q: What is a nephron?

Functional unit of kidney performing filtration, reabsorption, secretion, excretion.

30
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Q: What is the renal corpuscle?

Consists of glomerulus and Bowman's capsule; site of filtration.

31
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Q: Components of the filtration membrane?

Fenestrated capillaries, basement membrane, podocyte filtration slits.

32
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Q: What determines filtration?

Balance of hydrostatic and osmotic pressures across glomerular capillaries.

33
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Q: What is glomerular hydrostatic pressure?

Blood pressure inside glomerular capillaries promoting filtration.

34
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Q: What is Bowman's capsule pressure?

Hydrostatic pressure opposing filtration.

35
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Q: What is plasma oncotic pressure?

Osmotic pressure from plasma proteins opposing filtration.

36
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Q: What is GFR?

Amount of filtrate formed per minute (~180 L/day).

37
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Q: What affects GFR?

Arteriole resistance, blood pressure, tubuloglomerular feedback.

38
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Q: What is autoregulation of GFR?

Kidney maintains stable GFR via myogenic response and tubuloglomerular feedback.

39
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Q: Describe tubuloglomerular feedback.

Macula densa senses NaCl; high NaCl → afferent arteriole constriction → reduced GFR.

40
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Q: What are macula densa cells?

Cells in distal tubule that regulate GFR through paracrine signaling.

41
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Q: What are juxtaglomerular (JG) cells?

Afferent arteriole cells that release renin.

42
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Q: What stimulates renin release?

Low BP, low NaCl at macula densa, sympathetic activity.

43
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Q: What is renin's role?

Converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I.

44
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Q: What is ACE?

Enzyme converting angiotensin I to angiotensin II.

45
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Q: Effects of angiotensin II?

Vasoconstriction, increased aldosterone, ADH release, thirst.

46
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Q: What does aldosterone do?

Increases Na+ reabsorption and K+ secretion in distal nephron.

47
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Q: What are principal cells?

Distal nephron cells that reabsorb Na+ and secrete K+.

48
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Q: What are intercalated cells?

Cells that regulate acid-base balance through H+ and HCO3- handling.

49
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Q: Where does most reabsorption occur?

Proximal tubule (~65% of water/solutes).

50
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Q: What is obligatory water reabsorption?

Water following solutes in proximal tubule and descending limb.

51
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Q: What is facultative water reabsorption?

ADH-regulated water reabsorption in collecting duct.

52
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Q: Descending limb permeability?

Permeable to water only.

53
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Q: Ascending limb permeability?

Permeable to ions only; creates dilute filtrate.

54
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Q: What is countercurrent multiplication?

Loop of Henle process creating medullary osmotic gradient.

55
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Q: What is countercurrent exchange?

Vasa recta balancing solute/water to preserve gradient.

56
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Q: What is urine concentration dependent on?

ADH controlling collecting duct water permeability.

57
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Q: What is clearance?

Measure of how quickly a substance is removed from plasma.

58
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Q: Why is inulin used for GFR?

Filtered but neither reabsorbed nor secreted.

59
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Q: Glucose renal handling?

Normally fully reabsorbed until transport maximum is reached.

60
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Q: Transport maximum (Tm)?

Maximum rate of reabsorption for a substance.

61
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Q: Renal threshold?

Plasma concentration at which Tm is reached and substance appears in urine.

62
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Q: Urea handling?

50% reabsorbed; helps maintain medullary gradient.

63
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Q: Penicillin handling?

Actively secreted; clearance exceeds GFR.

64
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Q: What is micturition?

Process of urination controlled by reflex and voluntary mechanisms.

65
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Q: Steps of micturition reflex?

Stretch receptors → parasympathetic activation → bladder contraction → sphincter relaxation.

66
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Q: Total body water percent?

55-60% of body mass.

67
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Q: ICF vs ECF distribution?

ICF ~2/3, ECF ~1/3 of total body water.

68
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Q: Major ECF ions?

Na+ and Cl-.

69
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Q: Major ICF ions?

K+ and phosphate.

70
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Q: Water gain sources?

Ingestion and metabolic water.

71
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Q: Water loss routes?

Urine, sweat, lungs, feces.

72
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Q: What triggers thirst?

Osmoreceptors, low BP, angiotensin II.

73
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Q: ADH role in water balance?

Increases collecting duct permeability to water.

74
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Q: ANP role?

Promotes Na+ and water excretion; inhibits RAAS.

75
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Q: Aldosterone role?

Increases Na+ retention and K+ loss.

76
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Q: What is osmolarity?

Measure of solute concentration; regulated mainly by water balance.

77
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Q: Buffer systems?

Bicarbonate, phosphate, protein buffers.

78
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Q: Respiratory compensation?

Changes ventilation to regulate CO2 and thus pH.

79
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Q: Renal compensation?

Adjusts H+ excretion and HCO3- reabsorption.

80
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Q: What is acidosis?

Blood pH below 7.35 due to excess H+.

81
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Q: What is alkalosis?

Blood pH above 7.45 due to low H+.

82
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Q: Respiratory acidosis cause?

Hypoventilation increasing CO2.

83
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Q: Respiratory alkalosis cause?

Hyperventilation decreasing CO2.

84
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Q: Metabolic acidosis cause?

Loss of HCO3- or gain of acids.

85
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Q: Metabolic alkalosis cause?

Loss of acid (vomiting) or excess antacids.

86
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Q: Severe dehydration responses?

RAAS activation, ADH release, sympathetic stimulation, thirst, reduced GFR.

87
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Q: Volume vs osmolarity changes?

Volume changes affect BP; osmolarity affects cell size and ADH levels.