Exam 2 Practice Questions | Research Methods

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Last updated 12:14 AM on 7/13/26
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40 Terms

1
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Which statement BEST describes evidence-based practice (EMP)?

A. Clinical decisions based mainly on the therapist's personal experience and anecdotal outcomes

B.  The conscientious, explicit, and judicious use of current best evidence in decisions about individual patient care

C.  Applying the same protocol to every patient regardless of presentation

D.  Using only randomized controlled trials while ignoring patient preferences

B. The conscientious, explicit, and judicious use of current best evidence in decisions about individual patient care

2
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A strong research question should have ALL of the following characteristics EXCEPT:

A.  It is significant (contributes to or impacts many people)

B.  It is innovative (introduces something new — a new treatment or assessment tool)

C.  It addresses a clearly stated knowledge gap

D.  It is a simple replication of a question that has already been answered

It is a simple replication of a question that has already been answered

3
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Which statement about the two major categories of statistics is CORRECT?

A.  Descriptive statistics are used to make inferences about the population

B.  Inferential statistics only summarize the characteristics of the sample

C.  Descriptive statistics summarize/describe the sample; inferential statistics draw conclusions about the population

D.  Qualitative studies rely primarily on inferential statistics

Descriptive statistics summarize/ describe the sample; inferential statistics draw conclusions about the population

4
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A study analyzes data collected at a single point to provide a 'snapshot' of characteristics or associations. This design is:

A.  Randomized controlled trial

B.  Cohort study

C.  Cross-sectional study

D.  Cross-over study

Cross-sectional study

5
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Which qualitative research design seeks to understand the 'lived experience' of individuals with a particular concept, situation, or event?

A.  Narrative research

B.  Phenomenological research

C.  Ethnography

D.  Grounded theory

Phenomenological research

6
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Which qualitative design seeks to understand a specific process or action by generating a theory, using methods such as interviews with open, axial, and selective coding?

A.  Narrative research

B.  Phenomenological research

C.  Ethnography

D.  Grounded theory

Grounded theory

7
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A researcher enrolls the first 30 patients who walk into the clinic and agree to participate. This sampling method is BEST described as:

A.  Random (probability) sampling

B.  Convenience (non-probability) sampling

C.  Stratified random sampling

D.  Systematic random sampling

Convenience (non-probability) sampling

8
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A study is described as 'underpowered.' The most likely problem and its consequences are:

A.  The sample is too large, increasing Type I error

B.  The sample is too small, increasing the risk of Type II error

C.  The population is too small, increasing Type I error

D.  The population is too large, increasing Type II error

The sample is too small, increasing the risk of Type II error

9
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The following statements about variables are all true EXCEPT:

A.  The dependent variable is the outcome

B.  The independent variable may also be called the exposure or predictor

C.  Only the dependent variable can have levels

D.  Extraneous variables may also be called confounders or covariates

Only the dependent variable can have levels

10
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A confounder is a third variable that is related to BOTH the independent variable and the dependent variable and can distort the true relationship between them.

True

False

True

1 multiple choice option

11
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A study finds that patients who exercise more use fewer opioids. However, patients with lower baseline pain severity BOTH exercise more AND use fewer opioids. In this study, pain severity is best described as a:

A.  Dependent variable (outcome)

B.  Independent variable (exposure)

C.  Confounder

D.  Variable that proves exercise causes reduced opioid use

Confounder

12
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'Adjusted' results, such as an adjusted odds ratio or adjusted beta coefficient, indicate that the analysis controlled (accounted) for potential confounders.

True

False

True

13
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Ten bilingual clinical instructors each independently rate the SAME 25 students' Spanish proficiency, and the researchers then compare the instructors' scores with one another. What type of reliability is being tested?

A.  Intra-rater reliability

B.  Inter-rater reliability

C.  Test-retest reliability

D.  Internal consistency

Inter-rater reliability

14
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A single full-time research assistant will collect ALL of the pain-sensitivity data for a study using one device. Which type(s) of reliability must be ensured?

A.  Inter-rater and test-retest

B.  Intra-rater (and test-retest of the instrument)

C.  Inter-rater only

D.  Inter-rater and intra-rater

Intra-rater (and re-test of the instrument)

15
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Face validity means that a measurement, on the surface, appears to assess what it is intended...

True

False

True

16
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Construct validity evaluates whether a test truly represents the underlying concept (construct) that the researcher intends to measure.

True

False

True

17
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The following statements about validity are all INCORRECT, EXCEPT:

A.  Content validity is about the internal consistency (reliability) among items in a questionnaire

B.  Concurrent validity refers to the correlation of a new test with an established measure administered at the same time

C.  Convergent validity is assessed using p-values

D.  Content validity is established by correlating a test with a gold-standard measure

Concurrent validity refers to the correlation of a new test with an established measure administered at the same time

18
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A researcher estimates overall body-fat percentage by tape-measuring wrist circumference. Assistants are trained so that each gets the same result every time and their results agree with one another. The BEST description of this situation is:

A.  The test appears to have face validity and is reliable

B.  The test is reliable but does not appear to have face validity

C.  The test appears to have face validity but is not reliable

D.  The test is neither valid nor reliable

The test is reliable but does not appear to have face validity

19
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A researcher records gait speed (meters per second) for 200 older adults. What level of measurement is gait speed?

A.  Nominal

B.  Ordinal

C.  Interval

D.  Ratio

Ratio

20
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Course satisfaction is rated as 'extremely satisfied,' 'satisfied,' 'not satisfied,' and 'will never take this course again!!' What is the level of measurement?

A.  Ratio

B.  Ordinal

C.  Nominal

D.  Interval

Ordinal

21
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Participants are categorized as 'grumpy,' 'cocky,' or 'short-tempered.' What is the level of measurement for this variable?

A.  Ratio

B.  Ordinal

C.  Interval

D.  Nominal

Nominal

22
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The following statements about levels of measurement are all true EXCEPT:

A.  Eye color (brown, blue, green) is nominal

B.  Temperature in degrees Celsius is ratio

C.  Height in centimeters is ratio

D.  Pain rated as mild / moderate / severe is ordinal

Temperature in degrees Celsius is ratio

23
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A confidence interval (CI) provides information about precision and the range of plausible population values, whereas a p-value alone only tells you whether a result is statistically significant.

True

False

True

24
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The following statement about p-values and 95% confidence intervals are all true EXCEPT:

A.  A p-value essentially tells you only YES/NO about statistical significance

B.  Increasing the sample size makes the 95% CI wider

C.  A 95% CI is a range within which the true population value is estimated to lie

D.  A 95% CI can help you detect a potential Type II error

Increasing the sample size makes the 95% CI wider

25
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Which of the following statements about effect size is INCORRECT?

A.  Effect size quantifies the magnitude of a difference or relationship

B.  Some effect sizes are independent of sample size and allow comparison across studies

C.  Effect size is the ability to detect a difference or relationship if one truly exists

D.  A large effect size is often associated with clinical significance

Effect size is the ability to detect a difference or relationship if one truly exists

26
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You can reject the null hypothesis in all of the following scenerios EXCEPT:

A.  The p-value < alpha

B.  The 95% CI for a beta coefficient does NOT include 0

C.  The 95% CI for an odds ratio does NOT include 1

D.  The 95% CI for a beta coefficient includes 0

The 95% CI for a beta coefficient includes 0

27
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If the 95% CI of an odds ratio includes 0, then the p-value is greater than alpha.

True

False

False

28
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It is recommended to use non-parametric statistical methods in all of the following situations EXCEPT:

A.  The outcome distribution among participants is skewed

B.  The outcome is nominal-level data

C.  The outcome is ratio-level but not normally distributed

D.  The outcome is interval-level with a normal distribution

The outcome is interval-level with a normal distribution

29
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A researcher measures a 0-100 mental-health score BEFORE and AFTER treatment in the SAME 100 health-care providers to see if treatment improved the score. The most appropriate statistical test is:

A.  ANOVA

B.  Independent t-test

C.  Correlation analysis

D.  Paired t-test

Paired t-test

30
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A researcher wants to compare the mean weekly exercise hours across THREE cohorts (Class of '25, '26, and '27). The most appropriate statistical test is:

A.  Independent t-test

B.  Paired t-test

C.  ANOVA

D.  Correlation analysis

ANOVA

31
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You analyze a single DPT cohort's pre-test and post-test scores on an anatomy exam. This requires a statistical test that allows for the _____ comparison.

A.  Between-group

B.  Within-group

Within-group

32
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A significant ANOVA result tells you that:

A.  Exactly which specific groups differ from one another

B.  At least one group differs significantly, but NOT where the difference is (post-hoc testing is needed)

C.  The pre and post scores of one group differ

D.  There is a correlation among the groups

At least one group differs significantly, but NOT where the difference is (post-hoc testing is needed)

33
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You measure running speed on a treadmill that maxes out at 5 mph, but several participants are elite college sprinters (mean male speed ≈ 8 mph). What measurement problem will you likely encounter?

A.  Floor effect

B.  Ceiling effect

Ceiling effect

34
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The following statements are all true EXCEPT:

A.  Clinically meaningful change reflects the patient's perspective of change

B.  MCID is the smallest change that would be meaningful to the patient

C.  Statistical significance and clinical significance are the same thing

D.  A statistically significant result may still fail to be clinically significant, raising questions about clinical application

Statistical significance and clinical significance are the same thing

35
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A correlation of r = -0.57 is found between anxiety scores (higher = more anxious) and physical-activity scores (higher = more active). The correct interpretation is:

A.  More anxiety is associated with higher physical activity

B.  Higher anxiety is associated with lower physical activity, AND lower anxiety with higher physical activity

C.  It is a very strong negative correlation

D.  Higher anxiety causes reduced physical activity

Higher anxiety is associated with lower physical activity, AND lower anxiety with higher physical activity

36
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Which statement about correlation analysis is CORRECT?

A.  Correlation can establish a cause-and-effect relationship

B.  Correlation analysis has an exposure (independent variable) and an outcome (dependent variable)

C.  Correlation just describes a bivariate relationship

D.  Correlation is appropriate for nominal-level data

Correlation just describes a bivariate relationship

37
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Examine the correlation matrix below. Which statement is TRUE?

**Correlation is significant at p < 0.01

A.  There is a significant negative correlation between Sleep quality (#1) and Depression (#2)

B.  There is a significant positive difference between Variable #1 and Variable #3

C.  Depression (#2) and Physical activity (#3) are significantly correlated

D.  Higher sleep quality causes lower depression

There is a significant negative correlation between sleep quality (#1) and Depression (#2)

38
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In a linear regression, the beta for the effect of daily step count (per 1,000 steps) on a 0-10 pain score is -0.35 (95% CI: -0.60, -0.10). The correct interpretation is:

A.  For every additional 1,000 steps, pain increases by 0.35 points, and this is significant

B.  For every additional 1,000 steps, pain decreases by 0.35 points, and this is significant because the CI excludes 0

C.  For every additional 1,000 steps, pain decreases by 0.35 points, but this is not significant

D.  Step count causes a 35% reduction in pain

For every additional 1,000 steps, pain decreases by 0.35 points, and this is significant because the CI excludes 0

39
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The table shows adjusted odds of long-term opioid use by post-op PT dose. Which interpretation is CORRECT? (OR=odds ratio)

A.  Compared with 1–5 sessions, the 6–12 session group had 8% lower odds of long-term opioid use, and it is significant

B.  Compared with the reference group (1–5 sessions), ≥13 sessions had ~20% reduced odds of long-term opioid use, and it is significant (CI excludes 1)

C.  Compared with the reference group, ≥13 sessions had ~20% greater odds of long-term opioid use

D.  The 6–12 session result is significant because its CI includes 1

Compared with the reference group (1-5 sessions), ≥13 sessions had ~20% reduced odds of long-term opioid use, and it is significant (CI excludes 1)

40
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A logistic regression reports an OR of 0.54 (95% CI: 0.34, 0.88) for the effect of a one-unit increase in a pain-facilitation score on achieving a good surgical outcome. The correct interpretation is:

A.  For every one-unit increase, there is a 54% greater odds of a good outcome

B.  For every one-unit increase, there is a 46% reduced odds of a good outcome, and it is significant

C.  For every one-unit increase, there is a 54% reduced odds of a good outcome, but it is not significant

D.  The result is non-significant because the 95% CI includes 1

For every one-unit increase, there is a 46% reduced odds of a good outcome, and it is significant